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The Bible requires us to accept predestination. God is in control of everything.
The Bible requires us to accept free will, at least in some sense. We choose to do things.
Reconciling those two things is the big theological debate.
Because some people like simple answers to complex questions.
The same is true of English, but in English "you" got used so much as a polite singular that the informal "thou" totally vanished from the language.
That's why people invent new English plurals like "y'all" so that there will be both a singular and a plural again. Of course, "y'all" has been...
Well, the language suffers from not having a plural "you," so people invent new words to fill the gap.
It's a perennial translation problem with the NT -- the Greek makes a clear distinction between singular and plural "you" -- what is the best way to express that in English?
Thanks -- although it gets a bit confusing when you write your words inside the quote from me!
And Greek does have plurals -- ὑμεῖς is a plural "you" ("ye" in Elizabethan English, or "y'all" in modern American), and ἀνάβητε is a plural verb (meaning "y'all go up").
Well, our Matthew certainly seems to copy from Mark, so it can't be the oldest. And our Matthew was pretty clearly composed in Greek; it is not a translation. In any case, most Jews of that time read Greek rather than Hebrew; that is why the OT had been translated into Greek long before
There...
Actually, the KJV is not the original NT; the Greek is the original NT -- so let's not have any nonsense about "changing the words."
ὑμεῖς ἀνάβητε (You go up) εἰς τὴν ἑορτήν (to the feast). ἐγὼ οὐκ ἀναβαίνω (I am not going up) εἰς τὴν ἑορτὴν ταύτην (to this feast).
Now obviously one has to...
Well, (1) Jesus doesn't forgive the sins of unrepentant sinners, and (2) Jesus told us to pray "Forgive us our debts, as we also have forgiven our debtors."
Hence the interest in exactly how it was passed down.
Well, for example, was Jesus' prophecy about the destruction of the Temple written down before or after the destruction of the Temple actually took place?
But he also shows that very early dates for the gospels are possible, as I mentioned before.
I'm not sure about that; there's a tradition that Matthew wrote something (in Aramaic), but it probably wasn't our (Greek) Matthew, which seems to quote Mark.
That's pretty much the date when the...
He's quite important, and his letters are in the Penguin book of Early Christian Writings. Ignatius died in 110, and he had, and quoted (among other things) the gospels, 1 Peter, Galatians, Ephesians, Romans, Philippians, and 1 Corinthians.
Actually, brewmama is correct. They did use the Septuagint, and the Gospels often quote the Septuagint word-for-word in the Greek, even in cases where the Hebrew is quite different. For example:
Matt 12:21: and in his name the Gentiles will hope (Greek: καὶ τῷ ὀνόματι αὐτοῦ ἔθνη ἐλπιοῦσιν)...
What I said was: It's significant that John was an eyewitness, Mark recorded what the eyewitness Peter saw, and Luke collated the accounts of multiple eyewitnesses.
But you have to explain to people the connection between the Apostles and the Bible we have today.
:confused
And in talking to non-Christians about the trustworthiness of the Bible, dating and authorship become important. It's significant that John was an eyewitness, Mark recorded what the eyewitness Peter saw, and Luke collated the accounts of multiple eyewitnesses.
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