many are confusing the initial filling of the holy spirit with the baptism of the holy spirit.
Acts 19 asks a question, "have you received the holy spirit since you believed" meaning that you can recieve power after salvation, a particular filling of the holy spirit. The verses you speak of is general power given just through salvation. This is a particular gift, that allows one to have gifts of the spirit. Some may have the gift of the spirit but not know why< This is why. Acts 19 power. I will try to link a study to this post in a minute. But this power is available at any time. Just as a man would not deny his children bread, so too God will not deny His Holy Spirit to those who need it. If your ministry is burnt out or dry, so too like evangelicalism without the holy spirit, it too can be revived.
With respect, the Greek word 'baptizo' does mean "immerse", but the context indicates an "identification with". So, Jesus' baptism in the Jordan by John was His identification with the Father's plan for salvation. Just the same, 1 Cor 10:1-5 indicates that the Israelites were identified with moses in the sea. Note that none of them got wet. It was the Egyptians who got immersed and died.
And in 1 Pet 3:20-21, baptism is linked to the flood, but those saved were identified with Noah, and stayed dry, while the entire rest of of humanity was immersed in water and died.
Per the title of this thread, do you consider "baptism of the Holy Spirit" to be a water baptism, or a dry identification?
The article made no mention of 2 things that prevent the filling of the Holy Spirit; grieving Him (Eph 4:30) and quenching Him (1 Thess 5:19). Nor did it mention the 2 commands that result in the filling of the Holy Spirit: Eph 5:18 - be filled, and Gal 5:16 - walk by means of the Spirit, and you will not fulfill the lusts of the flesh.
Without mentioning any of these 4 verses, how can there be a real conversation about the filling of the Holy Spirit?
The article began with this: "On his third missionary journey, in the city of Ephesus, Paul found himself face-to-face with a group of believers who seemed dull and dry, listless and lifeless." I'm curious as to how one would come to such a conclusion, since the text says nothing about their "state of being". Then the article tried to link Ezekiel with these disciples.
The article correctly notes that the believer is indwelt with the Holy Spirit, but isn't clear about how one is filled with the Spirit.
Then it says this: "By and large, pentecostal theology declares the baptism of the Spirit is subsequent to water baptism. On the other hand, dispensational theology generally teaches the baptism of the Spirit is inherent in water baptism. I believe that the baptism of the Spirit, ideally, is simultaneous with water baptism."
I have no idea what all pentecostal theology declares, but being one of dispensational theology, I've not come across the teaching that baptism of the Holy Spirit is inherent in water baptism. In fact, the "baptism of the Holy Spirit" is an identification of the believer with being a child of God, a possession of God, from Eph 1:13,14. "Having believed" (aorist- point in time) the believer is sealed IN HIM with the Spirit, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance for the day of redemption, as God's possession.
So there is no connection between the baptism of the Spirit and water baptism. Water baptism is an ordinance that identifies the believer with the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ. Baptism of the Spirit is the initial indwelling of the Spirit (sealing) which identifies the believer as God's own possession.
Finally, the article completely missed the opportunity to note the importance of being in fellowship with God and Christ, from 1 John 1:9.
Unless one regularly confesses all known sins, there isn't cleansing or purifying, and there is no fellowship. As such, there can be no filling either. Confession is for fellowship, the filling of the Holy Spirit is for service, under God's power.
