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kc1

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In the Book of Revelation, in the fifth chapter, the whole Church of God is represented to us in its entirety. Jesus Christ said: ‘Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up’ (John. 2:19). He ‘spake of the temple of his body’ (John.2:21). This Temple will be rebuilt during three thousand years, because ‘one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day’ (2Pet.3:8)

So, ‘the four beasts’ (Rev.5:6) are ‘faithful’ (Rev. 17:14), or ‘church of the firstborn’ (Heb.12:23), or ‘a sheaf of the firstfruits’ (Lev.23:10) of the harvest...,

Twenty-four elders are ‘called, & chosen’ (Revelation 17:14), or ‘barley harvest and of wheat harvest’ (Ruth.2:23), or ‘two wave loaves’ (Lev.23:17) ...,

Many Angels (Rev. 5:11) are the saved of the Millennium and the righteous of the Old Testament who will be resurrected "at the end" (Dan.12:13) of the Millennium is the ‘feast of ingathering at the year's end’ (Ex.34:22)
 
In the Book of Revelation, in the fifth chapter, the whole Church of God is represented to us in its entirety. Jesus Christ said: ‘Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up’ (John. 2:19). He ‘spake of the temple of his body’ (John.2:21). This Temple will be rebuilt during three thousand years, because ‘one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day’ (2Pet.3:8)

So, ‘the four beasts’ (Rev.5:6) are ‘faithful’ (Rev. 17:14), or ‘church of the firstborn’ (Heb.12:23), or ‘a sheaf of the firstfruits’ (Lev.23:10) of the harvest...,

Twenty-four elders are ‘called, & chosen’ (Revelation 17:14), or ‘barley harvest and of wheat harvest’ (Ruth.2:23), or ‘two wave loaves’ (Lev.23:17) ...,

Many Angels (Rev. 5:11) are the saved of the Millennium and the righteous of the Old Testament who will be resurrected "at the end" (Dan.12:13) of the Millennium is the ‘feast of ingathering at the year's end’ (Ex.34:22)
I'm not sure what your point is, but Peter's statement "that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day," is a figure of speech, a simile, and is not meant to be understood as saying a thousand years is one day to be Lord.

Jesus said his body would be raised in three days, that is precisely what John 2:19-22 tells us, and that is precisely what happened.
 
I'm not sure what your point is, but Peter's statement "that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day," is a figure of speech, a simile, and is not meant to be understood as saying a thousand years is one day to be Lord...
‘Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city…’ (Dan.9:27)

How do you think up, here are the weeks of the days or weeks of the years?
 
In the Book of Revelation, in the fifth chapter, the whole Church of God is represented to us in its entirety. Jesus Christ said: ‘Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up’ (John. 2:19). He ‘spake of the temple of his body’ (John.2:21). This Temple will be rebuilt during three thousand years, because ‘one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day’ (2Pet.3:8)
That's a bridge too far.
The temple Jesus was talking about was His physical body, not the church.
 
The temple Jesus was talking about was His physical body, not the church.
The Bible says that the Сhurch 'is his body' (Eph.1:23).
Biblical doctrine is not built on the historical significance of the verses of the Bible, but only on the prophetic.
 
The Bible says that the Сhurch 'is his body' (Eph.1:23).
That was Paul talking about an entirely different subject.
The body Jesus said He would raise up was His personal, physical body.
Biblical doctrine is not built on the historical significance of the verses of the Bible, but only on the prophetic.
I don't have any idea where you got that nonsense but I strongly suggest you put it back where you found it, bury it and forget it.
 
Did Jesus's body resurrect ?
Physically, yes. Prophetically, no. The LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon ‘Adam’. He creates from His rib ‘Eve’. ‘Adam’ is still asleep. Eve is not here yet. The Church is under construction. They ‘shall be one flesh’ (Gen.2:24) soon.
 
‘Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city…’ (Dan.9:27)

How do you think up, here are the weeks of the days or weeks of the years?
I don't understand your question.


Physically, yes. Prophetically, no.
What do you mean by "Prophetically, no"?

The LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon ‘Adam’. He creates from His rib ‘Eve’. ‘Adam’ is still asleep. Eve is not here yet. The Church is under construction. They ‘shall be one flesh’ (Gen.2:24) soon.
What do you mean by this?
 
Physically, yes. Prophetically, no. The LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon ‘Adam’. He creates from His rib ‘Eve’. ‘Adam’ is still asleep. Eve is not here yet. The Church is under construction. They ‘shall be one flesh’ (Gen.2:24) soon.

I understand what you're saying and I agree with you on all but a minor thing:

Biblical doctrine is not built on the historical significance of the verses of the Bible, but only on the prophetic.

Only is an overstatement I believe. There is some historical significance of (some of) the verses, so how about saying that, but mostly on the prophetic? I think that would be accurate.

That's all. :lol
 
Physically, yes. Prophetically, no. The LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon ‘Adam’. He creates from His rib ‘Eve’. ‘Adam’ is still asleep. Eve is not here yet. The Church is under construction. They ‘shall be one flesh’ (Gen.2:24) soon.
OK
That sounds very strange to me but this is not a place (the Lounge) where we debate theology so, I'll just leave it.

iakov the fool
 
I don't understand your question.
The prophecy of Dan (9:27) speaks of years, but not of days. Is not it?
What do you mean by "Prophetically, no"?
Jesus Christ was resurrected physically through ‘three days and three nights’ (Mt. 12: 40). It's 72 hours.

Jesus Christ says that ‘the third day he shall rise again’ (Mt. 20: 19). The 2nd day passes (2000 years). Soon there will come the third day. Jesus Christ will ‘rise again’. At the present time ‘the heir’ is still a child (Gal. 4: 1). He has not yet received ‘a kingdom’ (Luke. 19: 20). The ‘seventh angel’ (Rev.11:15) will sound and He will take up His ‘great power’ (Rev.11: 17). This will be His accession.

In ‘the third day’ (Hos.6:2) Israel will be revived up as nation, as the people of God as well. There will be restored again ‘the kingdom to Israel’ (Acts.1:6). This ‘kingdom shall not be left to other people’ (Dan.2:44)
What do you mean by this?
Jesus Christ and His ‘church of the firstborn’ (Heb.12:23) will begin to serve in the tabernacle of heaven.
 
I understand what you're saying and I agree with you on all but a minor thing:

Only is an overstatement I believe. There is some historical significance of (some of) the verses, so how about saying that, but mostly on the prophetic? I think that would be accurate.

That's all. :lol
Edward, I'm glad that you understood what I wrote.
 
The prophecy of Dan (9:27) speaks of years, but not of days. Is not it?
It does. But that has no bearing on what Peter says.

Jesus Christ was resurrected physically through ‘three days and three nights’ (Mt. 12: 40). It's 72 hours.

Jesus Christ says that ‘the third day he shall rise again’ (Mt. 20: 19). The 2nd day passes (2000 years). Soon there will come the third day. Jesus Christ will ‘rise again’. At the present time ‘the heir’ is still a child (Gal. 4: 1). He has not yet received ‘a kingdom’ (Luke. 19: 20). The ‘seventh angel’ (Rev.11:15) will sound and He will take up His ‘great power’ (Rev.11: 17). This will be His accession.

In ‘the third day’ (Hos.6:2) Israel will be revived up as nation, as the people of God as well. There will be restored again ‘the kingdom to Israel’ (Acts.1:6). This ‘kingdom shall not be left to other people’ (Dan.2:44)
So, there really is no reason to say there is a "prophetic resurrection."

Jesus Christ and His ‘church of the firstborn’ (Heb.12:23) will begin to serve in the tabernacle of heaven.
There simply is, again, nothing to support what you have been saying.

You seem to be drawing parallels and making connections where there are none.
 
It does. But that has no bearing on what Peter says.
Why do you think that the Bible has the principle of calculating ‘each day for a year’ (Num.14:34), but that it does not have the principle of the calculus ‘a thousand years as one day’ (2Pet.3:8)?
 
Why do you think that the Bible has the principle of calculating ‘each day for a year’ (Num.14:34), but that it does not have the principle of the calculus ‘a thousand years as one day’ (2Pet.3:8)?
Because context. There is no biblical principle for calculating each day as one year. We may have a few passages where it is the case that one year is represented by one day, but that does not in any way mean that we can use that as we wish to do some sort of "Bible math."

In Numbers, God bases the forty year punishment on the forty days that the spies were in the land, but that doesn't set up some sort of principle.

Again, in Peter, that is a simile, a figure of speech, not meant to be taken literally. When we consider the context of 2 Pet. 3:8, we see that Peter is making a specific argument to address scoffers questioning why God is taking so long:

2Pe 3:4 They will say, "Where is the promise of his coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all things are continuing as they were from the beginning of creation." (ESV)

And his reply is:

2Pe 3:8 But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance. (ESV)

His reply is simply to show that God is timeless and that things will happen when he wants them to happen, not before.
 
Because context. There is no biblical principle for calculating each day as one year. We may have a few passages where it is the case that one year is represented by one day, but that does not in any way mean that we can use that as we wish to do some sort of "Bible math."

In Numbers, God bases the forty year punishment on the forty days that the spies were in the land, but that doesn't set up some sort of principle.

Again, in Peter, that is a simile, a figure of speech, not meant to be taken literally. When we consider the context of 2 Pet. 3:8, we see that Peter is making a specific argument to address scoffers questioning why God is taking so long:

2Pe 3:4 They will say, "Where is the promise of his coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all things are continuing as they were from the beginning of creation." (ESV)

And his reply is:

2Pe 3:8 But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance. (ESV)

His reply is simply to show that God is timeless and that things will happen when he wants them to happen, not before.

yes, and then gave a direct time correlation between heaven and earth. Nothing figurative about it. You can't just dismiss that, take it in context, but completely.
 
yes, and then gave a direct time correlation between heaven and earth. Nothing figurative about it. You can't just dismiss that, take it in context, but completely.
No, he did not. It is a figure of speech. There is absolutely no reason to believe that it is a "direct time correlation between heaven and earth."
 
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