Was Luke/Acts written to an individual person or to all individual God lovers?

[chessman]

In-as-much-as many undertook to compile a narrative about the things having been fulfilled among us, just as the eyewitnesses from the first and ones having become servants of the word handed-down to us, it seemed good to me also, having closely-followed everything carefully from-the-beginning, to write it for you in-order, most-excellent Theophilus, in order that you may fully-know the certainty of the things about which you were instructed.​

Luke 1:1-4 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Luke 1:1-4&version=DLNT

2316 theós (of unknown origin) – properly, God, the Creator and owner of all things (Jn 1:3; Gen 1 - 3).​

[Long before the NT was written, 2316 (theós) referred to the supreme being who owns and sustains all things.]​

5384 phílos – a friend; someone dearly loved (prized) in a personal, intimate way; a trusted confidant, held dear in a close bond of personal affection.​

Note: The root (phil-) conveys experiential, personal affection – indicating 5384 (phílos) expresses experience-based love.​

​

https://biblehub.com/greek/2321.htm​

 

[WIP]

No Biblical basis for this and just my gut feeling but my thought is that the books of Acts and Luke seem to contain so much detailed information that although it appears Luke was writing to an individual named Theophilus it would be expected that the information contained would likely be shared once received.

 

[for_his_glory]

Many scriptures are written to an individual like that of Luke writing to Theophilus, but yet are lessons for all of us to learn from.

 

[chessman]

just as the eyewitnesses from the first and ones having become servants of the word handed-down to us,

No Biblical basis for this

I believe there is Biblical basis for your gut feeling found within Luke’s introduction:

1. It seems reasonable that Luke was referring to the previously written “first eye-witnesses” accounts. That being of the earlier Gospels (Matthew and Mark (Peter’s compiler) in all likelihood) in his introduction. And his introduction specifically says those eye-witness accounts were “handed down” to “us” (Luke and his addressee, God-Lover, Theos-Philos).

And Luke specifically says his account was “just-as” those.

2. I didn’t realize “Theophilus” means God-Lover until today. (Or I did and had forgot it)

 

[WIP]

Many scriptures are written to an individual like that of Luke writing to Theophilus, but yet are lessons for all of us to learn from.

A lot of the letters seem to have been written intently to groups as opposed to Acts and Luke's gospel message.

 

[Randy]

I believe the gospel message was written for future generations. I don't think that any of the writers could envision that 2000 years later we are still discussing the meanings of some things. That the end still hasn't come. If so they may have taken time to put more clarity on some things. But they were clear enough in where it counts.

And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come.

Truth is truth whether it was to a person or sent to all nations. We can be thankful for our dear brother Luke.

Luke 1
Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. 3 With this in mind, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, 4 so that you may know the certainty of the things you have been taught.

 

[chessman]

I believe the gospel message was written for future generations.

Certainly, Luke had an audience of future generations of Christians in mind:

And they [not a 1st Century generation] will fall by the edge of the sword. And they will be taken-captive to all the nations. And Jerusalem will be being trampled by the Gentiles until which time the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.​

Luke 21:24 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Luke 21:24&version=DLNT

Just waiting on the “times of the Gentiles” to be fulfilled.

If so they may have taken time to put more clarity on some things.

We have as much clarity as is required:

For the Holy Spirit will teach you at the very hour the things which you ought-to say”.​

Luke 12:12 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Luke 12:12&version=DLNT

We can be thankful for our dear brother Luke.

Sure. But what do you think ... Is Theophilos (Theo-Philos, God-Lover)
meant as:
A. Merely a person’s name, i.e. it’s a personal letter to an individual.
B. Any particular God-Lover (like you/me)
C. Both A and B

 

[Randy]

Certainly, Luke had an audience of future generations of Christians in mind:

​

Sure. But what do you think ... Is Theophilos (Theo-Philos, God-Lover)
meant as:
A. Merely a person’s name, i.e. it’s a personal letter to an individual.
B. Any particular God-Lover (like you/me)
C. Both A and B

I think Theophilos was a person other than that I don't know. But truth is truth.

 

[Jim Parker]

No Biblical basis for this and just my gut feeling but my thought is that the books of Acts and Luke seem to contain so much detailed information that although it appears Luke was writing to an individual named Theophilus it would be expected that the information contained would likely be shared once received.

The name, "Theophilus" (Θεόφιλος - Theo philos) means "lover of God." (From: Theos: God and Phileo: to love)
That being the case, the letter could be addressed to all God-lovers or to a specific individual named Θεόφιλος.

We'll have to ask Luke when we see him.

 

[for_his_glory]

A lot of the letters seem to have been written intently to groups as opposed to Acts and Luke's gospel message.

I agree, but yet to me we learn from that which was written to whomever the intent of the letter was for.

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

 

[Razeontherock]

Certainly, Luke had an audience of future generations of Christians in mind:

And they [not a 1st Century generation] will fall by the edge of the sword. And they will be taken-captive to all the nations. And Jerusalem will be being trampled by the Gentiles until which time the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.​

Luke 21:24 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Luke 21:24&version=DLNT

Just waiting on the “times of the Gentiles” to be fulfilled.



We have as much clarity as is required:

For the Holy Spirit will teach you at the very hour the things which you ought-to say”.​

Luke 12:12 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=Luke 12:12&version=DLNT




Sure. But what do you think ... Is Theophilos (Theo-Philos, God-Lover)
meant as:
A. Merely a person’s name, i.e. it’s a personal letter to an individual.
B. Any particular God-Lover (like you/me)
C. Both A and B

C

Not sure what Luke intended, but the Holy Spirit knows more than any of the Biblical authors

 

[chessman]

Not sure what Luke intended, but the Holy Spirit knows more than any of the Biblical authors

knowing this first— that no prophecy of Scripture comes from one’s own interpretation. For no prophecy was ever carried by the will of a human, but people being carried by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.​

2 Peter 1:20-21 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=2 Peter 1:20-21&version=DLNT

 

[Jim Parker]

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

When Paul wrote that, the only scriptures were the Old Testament and those are the scriptures to which he was referring.
I don't think Paul was aware that he was writing scripture. He probably thought he was just explaining the OT scriptures in the light of their fulfillment in Jesus preaching, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the Holy Spirit and also, how the scriptures applied to the Gentiles who were no included into God's covenant people through faith in Christ. (But not by keeping the Law)

 

[chessman]

When Paul wrote that, the only scriptures were the Old Testament

For the Scripture says “You shall not muzzle a threshing ox” [Deut 25:4], and “The worker is worthy of his wages” [ Lk 10:7 ].​

1 Timothy 5:18 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=1 Timothy 5:18&version=DLNT

 

[Edward]

Those words are for us.

 

[for_his_glory]

When Paul wrote that, the only scriptures were the Old Testament and those are the scriptures to which he was referring.
I don't think Paul was aware that he was writing scripture. He probably thought he was just explaining the OT scriptures in the light of their fulfillment in Jesus preaching, death, resurrection, ascension, and sending of the Holy Spirit and also, how the scriptures applied to the Gentiles who were no included into God's covenant people through faith in Christ. (But not by keeping the Law)

Was Paul not indwelled with the Holy Spirit just as the 12 were and taught and led of the Holy Spirit to write the letters he wrote just like the 12 before him?

Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God
Rev 22:13 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.

Everything from Genesis to Revelations is Gods written word. Even Jesus never spoke anything other than what God gave Him to speak, John 12:49, 50. Same with all of God's prophets and disciples of Christ and all who are of Christ own through the Spiritual rebirth who walk in faith and indwelled with the Holy Spirit.

 

[Jim Parker]

Was Paul not indwelled with the Holy Spirit just as the 12 were and taught and led of the Holy Spirit to write the letters he wrote just like the 12 before him?

Of course. I did not suggest otherwise.

Everything from Genesis to Revelations is Gods written word.

Sure.
But you missed my point.
When Paul was writing, his letters were not considered "scripture." They were seen as teaching, correction, encouragement, etc.
HOWEVER: when Paul made reference to "the scripture", he was referring to the Old Testament because, as of that point in time, there were no "New Testament Scriptures."
That's why I said: "I don't think Paul was aware that he was writing scripture." He was teaching that Christ fulfilled the OT scriptures and how believers should understand and obey the Lord's calling.

 

[chessman]

when Paul made reference to "the scripture", he was referring to the Old Testament because, as of that point in time, there were no "New Testament Scriptures."

For the Scripture says “You shall not muzzle a threshing ox” [Deut 25:4], and “The worker is worthy of his wages” [ Lk 10:7 ].​

1 Timothy 5:18 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=1 Timothy 5:18&version=DLNT

 

[Conqueror]

I agree, but yet to me we learn from that which was written to whomever the intent of the letter was for.

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.

All God-breathed writing (is) profitable for doctrine .......... (2 Ti 3:16).

Neither the OT nor the NT was codified when Paul wrote that.
Christendom tries and to use this verse
to justify all books in the Roman Canon
by the uninspired early church fathers.


.

 

[Jim Parker]

All God-breathed writing (is) profitable for doctrine .......... (2 Ti 3:16).
Neither the OT nor the NT was codified when Paul wrote that.

Jesus, Paul, Peter, Mathew, Mark, Luke, John, James, Jude and Stephen all quoted the Old Testament. (Primarily the Greek Septuagint) as being the word of God.
So to what do you think Paul was referring as scripture? (Or are you have rendered it; "God-breathed writing")

Christendom tries and to use this verse
to justify all books in the Roman Canon by the uninspired early church fathers.

What do you mean by "Christendom"?
The Scriptures which are quoted in the NT are from the Septuagint which included the Apocrypha.
The early church fathers never claimed that their writing was "inspired" and neither has anyone else.

What's your point?