Why is the NT in Greek?

Discussion in 'Questions for Christians (Q&A)' started by Seeker, Jun 8, 2012.

  1. misbehaved11

    misbehaved11 Member

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  2. selihah

    selihah Member

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    Actually there is a Hebrew manuscript of Matthew and a just recently discovered one of Revelation.
     
  3. Jim Parker

    Jim Parker Member

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    The New Testament is in Greek because Greek was the most widely spoken language in the Roman Empire and even as far east as India. This was the result of the conquests of Alexander the Great and his program of "Helenizing" the entire word by spreading Greek culture and language. The four generals who succeeded him continued that program for generations and the result was that, in the 2nd century BC, the Old Testament was translated into Greek so that Jews, who no longer understood the Hebrew of the scriptures, could read them in a language they understood.

    But a more important result was that there was a common language in which the Gospel could be spread throughout the civilized world in a very short time. (Northern Europe to India in one generation)

    iakov the fool
     
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  4. OzSpen

    OzSpen Member

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    How do we know these NT books were originally in Hebrew and not Greek? There is some scholarship pointing to the Gospel of Matthew written originally in Hebrew and then Greek. See: http://hebrewgospel.com/Matthew Two Gospels Main Evidence.php.

    George Howard did write a book, The Hebrew Gospel of Matthew. See HERE.

    Oz
     
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  5. Politico

    Politico Member

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    There is no proof that the OT is from the Septuagint. In fact, there is no proof that what is popularly called the Septuagint even has a B.C. creation date. The Letter of Aristeas is a forgery and belongs to the Pseudepigrapha. And no, there is no proof that Jesus or the NT writers quoted from the Septuagint. And even if the Septuagint has a BC date, there is no proof that the NT writers quoted from it. Corrupt modern Bible versions use corrupt manuscripts that make it appear as if Christ quoted from the corrupt Septuagint, when in fact He did not.

    Even Papyrus Fouad 266 (small fragment in Greek) shows correction towards the Masoretic Text even though many are claiming it belongs to the Septuagint text. Some are claiming it is a later recension of the standard Septuagint text. As I understand it, this fragment has been attributed palaeographically to the 1st century BC. However, paleography cannot provide pin-point accuracy.
     
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  6. eddif

    eddif Member

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    Isaiah 28:9 KJV
    Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts.
    10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:
    11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
    12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.

    The time of Isaiah is just before the 400 years of silence between the law and Jesus coming in the New Testament. The message of Isaiah is of coming judgement and law put in hearts and minds.

    The commandments eventually rose to 613 (I will not even guess at the exact number in the days of Jesus).

    The total rest of Jesus (what Jesus accomplished) was first written in Greek. This foreign Greek language is not Hebrew.)

    The prophecy of Isaiah 28 did come true (true prophecy will always come to fulfillment).

    IMHO
    This passage alone is enough to show the purpose of Greek language. The rejection of Jesus (to his death), occurred under Greek language recording. The meat of salvation came under the Greek Language.

    eddif
     
  7. eddif

    eddif Member

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    i tried to keep post 25 short, but it can be expanded.

    There is a milk of the Word and meat of Word.

    The commandments can be called traditions of elders.

    eddif
     
  8. WIP

    WIP Staff Member Administrator

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    This forum is not for debating. Address replies to the OP and not each other.
     
  9. sunfly

    sunfly Member

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    Many Jews of the time spoke Koine Greek. The language in which the new testament appears. The apostles of Jesus would have spoken Hebrew, possibly Aramaic, and they would have known Koine Greek, even if they could not read Hebrew itself. All three languages were popular in the Roman province at the time.
    This is why Pilate had three languages written on the plate above the head of Christ when he was crucified. Informing all people of his identity, or crime for being there.
    INRI
    Iēsus Nazarēnus, Rēx Iūdaeōrum
    "Jesus the Nazarene, King of the Jews " Found in John 19:19-20
     
  10. wondering

    wondering Member

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    It's very simple and the answer has been given a few times.
    Here's an example for you...
    I speak Italian and I speak my dialect.
    I might want to write a book.
    If I write it in my dialect, only my paesani, about 800 persons, will be able to read it.
    If I write it in Italian, all of italy could read it.
    Simple.
     
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  11. Zackuth

    Zackuth Member

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    When Alexander the Great conquered all the lands to make his empire, the area the Jews lived in was one of the areas. Alexander, being Greek, spoke Greek along with his army. After Alexander's death, four of his generals (also Greeks) divided the territory amongst them. Greek became a dominate language in the area because of this.
     
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  12. Count Duckula

    Count Duckula Member

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    20% of Alexandria Egypt in the first century was Jewish. Many of them didn't know Hebrew or Aramaic. They knew Greek. That explains the need they had for the LXX, or the Septuagint, which is where we get our order of our OT books. The governing family there was Jewish as well. They even helped to destroy the temple in Jerusalem at the exact time Jesus predicted it. Jesus went to Egypt at the young age. It makes more sense now why it would have been hospitable there.
     
  13. Truthfrees

    Truthfrees Member

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  14. eddif

    eddif Member

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    Why Greek

    Mark 7:10 KJV
    For Moses said, Honour thy father and thy mother; and, Whoso curseth father or mother, let him die the death:
    11 But ye say, If a man shall say to his father or mother, It is Corban, that is to say, a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me; he shall be free.
    12 And ye suffer him no more to do ought for his father or his mother;
    13 Making the word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye.
    14 And when he had called all the people unto him, he said unto them, Hearken unto me every one of you, and understand:
    15 There is nothing from without a man, that entering into him can defile him: but the things which come out of him, those are they that defile the man.

    The prophets had spoken to the Jewish people to try and lead them. They refused the prophets words in Hebrew.

    Hebrews 1:1 KJV
    God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
    2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

    Jesus basically told the Jewish people:
    I talked to you in your language.
    But
    You believe conflicting doctrine in traditions
    So
    Jesus began to speak of the inner kingdom of man (heart and mind). That in itself almost a new language.
    And
    Used a different Greek language to help accomplish it.
    But
    Even then they would not listen.

    Mississippi redneck
    eddif
     
  15. Randy

    Randy Member

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    My NT is in english. (smile) otherwise I wouldn't understand it. When in the past the HS conveyed something to me in my mind the words were english. Otherwise I wouldn't understand. God speaks to all in their native tongue. When Jesus was on the cross and in intense pain He cried out in Aramaic which suggests that language was more natural to Him. But Jesus on several occasions stated the Father gave Him words and He spoke all that the Father in Him commanded Him to speak and He knew the Fathers command leads to eternal life. The one who wrote "hebrews" is thought to be a Hebrew. And that writer would have known Hebrew just as Jesus read from the scroll in the synagogue in Hebrew. Just as a American would know english. We don't have Christianity because of a alternative translation. We have christianity because of the Fathers will. He who made a new covenant just as he foretold and according to His will that message of salvation was sent to the four corners of the world through His Christ. (to the ends of the world).

    Jesus read this in this synagogue from the Hebrew scroll and stated in their hearing it was fulfilled.
    The Spirit of the Sovereign LORD is on me, because the LORD has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim freedom for the captives and release from darkness for the prisoners,
     

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