Discussion in 'Questions for Christians (Q&A)' started by Seeker, Jun 8, 2012.
Actually there is a Hebrew manuscript of Matthew and a just recently discovered one of Revelation.
The New Testament is in Greek because Greek was the most widely spoken language in the Roman Empire and even as far east as India. This was the result of the conquests of Alexander the Great and his program of "Helenizing" the entire word by spreading Greek culture and language. The four generals who succeeded him continued that program for generations and the result was that, in the 2nd century BC, the Old Testament was translated into Greek so that Jews, who no longer understood the Hebrew of the scriptures, could read them in a language they understood.
But a more important result was that there was a common language in which the Gospel could be spread throughout the civilized world in a very short time. (Northern Europe to India in one generation)
iakov the fool
How do we know these NT books were originally in Hebrew and not Greek? There is some scholarship pointing to the Gospel of Matthew written originally in Hebrew and then Greek. See: http://hebrewgospel.com/Matthew Two Gospels Main Evidence.php.
George Howard did write a book, The Hebrew Gospel of Matthew. See HERE.
There is no proof that the OT is from the Septuagint. In fact, there is no proof that what is popularly called the Septuagint even has a B.C. creation date. The Letter of Aristeas is a forgery and belongs to the Pseudepigrapha. And no, there is no proof that Jesus or the NT writers quoted from the Septuagint. And even if the Septuagint has a BC date, there is no proof that the NT writers quoted from it. Corrupt modern Bible versions use corrupt manuscripts that make it appear as if Christ quoted from the corrupt Septuagint, when in fact He did not.
Even Papyrus Fouad 266 (small fragment in Greek) shows correction towards the Masoretic Text even though many are claiming it belongs to the Septuagint text. Some are claiming it is a later recension of the standard Septuagint text. As I understand it, this fragment has been attributed palaeographically to the 1st century BC. However, paleography cannot provide pin-point accuracy.
Isaiah 28:9 KJV
Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts.
10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little:
11 For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.
12 To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest; and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear.
The time of Isaiah is just before the 400 years of silence between the law and Jesus coming in the New Testament. The message of Isaiah is of coming judgement and law put in hearts and minds.
The commandments eventually rose to 613 (I will not even guess at the exact number in the days of Jesus).
The total rest of Jesus (what Jesus accomplished) was first written in Greek. This foreign Greek language is not Hebrew.)
The prophecy of Isaiah 28 did come true (true prophecy will always come to fulfillment).
This passage alone is enough to show the purpose of Greek language. The rejection of Jesus (to his death), occurred under Greek language recording. The meat of salvation came under the Greek Language.
i tried to keep post 25 short, but it can be expanded.
There is a milk of the Word and meat of Word.
The commandments can be called traditions of elders.
This forum is not for debating. Address replies to the OP and not each other.
Many Jews of the time spoke Koine Greek. The language in which the new testament appears. The apostles of Jesus would have spoken Hebrew, possibly Aramaic, and they would have known Koine Greek, even if they could not read Hebrew itself. All three languages were popular in the Roman province at the time.
This is why Pilate had three languages written on the plate above the head of Christ when he was crucified. Informing all people of his identity, or crime for being there.
Iēsus Nazarēnus, Rēx Iūdaeōrum
"Jesus the Nazarene, King of the Jews " Found in John 19:19-20
It's very simple and the answer has been given a few times.
Here's an example for you...
I speak Italian and I speak my dialect.
I might want to write a book.
If I write it in my dialect, only my paesani, about 800 persons, will be able to read it.
If I write it in Italian, all of italy could read it.
When Alexander the Great conquered all the lands to make his empire, the area the Jews lived in was one of the areas. Alexander, being Greek, spoke Greek along with his army. After Alexander's death, four of his generals (also Greeks) divided the territory amongst them. Greek became a dominate language in the area because of this.
Separate names with a comma.