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Sorry for the delay. Let me respond in order of your quotes: 1) I fail to see how you can read Gen 49:10 in the way you stated. The verse clearly says that the scepter will not depart from Judah (meaning the tribe of Judah). Let us assume the Hebrew word translated in most bibles as "Shiloh"...

In light of what you have stated I have decided to continue this discussion within this thread. The Hebrew word for messiah is moshiach, the proper translation of this word being "anointed". The term "hamashiach" ie The Messiah does not occur anywhere in the Hebrew Bible but various explicit...

Sinthesis: Should a new thread be started for this?

It's not everybody that can spell, either.:waveI will try to answer sinth's post later.

As Pres Ronald Reagan used to say: "There you go again." You continue to use the same old techniques I mentioned in my last post. YOU started this thread but you refuse to answer questions directly. You have not shown the "evidence" that Joshua=Christ. I do not feel any obligation to continue...

You are like every fundie I have ever debated. YOU refuse to answer a question and then accuse me of doing the same. You veer off topic and rather responding specifically you post more and more scripture which is not relevant to the topic at hand. If by "Joshua" you mean Jesus, I would point out...

I will be pleased to explain but first clarify whom you are referencing. Are you talking about Moses successor? Jesus?

I was not speaking about"traits" nor was I speaking about types and foreshadowings.The Hebrew Bible is pretty specific regarding the changes that will obvious in this world (not in some heavenly sphere) in the messianic age. Not only is Jesus genealogy wrong, he failed to accomplish the tasks he...

Ezek 21 has nothing to do with "Joshua" being crowned. It can be interpreted as a near term prophecy and a messianic prophecy. What you are doing is retrofitting Jesus into this as the Messiah, and stating without any proof that his name is Joshua. Jesus did not fulfill any of the major items...

You seem obsessed with this notion of Jesus=Joshua. The fact is we have no sure knowledge of what his Hebrew name was and even if it was Joshua- so what?? You have not provided any clear, unambiguous proof that any of the scripture you have quoted until now is about Jesus. Part of your problem...

Perhaps you could try to make your posts a little shorter as it is difficult to respond to such a lengthy post. 1). wrt Ezek 17. Please demonstrate where the word "tsemach" (branch) appears in these verses. v3 in Hebrew has "tsameret haarez" ie the lofty top of the cedar. The parable concerns...

Your point seems to be Jesus=Joshua=Branch but you ignore context. The references in Zechariah refer to tzemach-there is no definite article in the Hebrew, hence no THE BRANCH. Furthermore, Zech 3:6-10 is directed toward Joshua who is told that the servant tzemach will be brought forth-clearly...

Wow! What an ignorant response. "You people?" "reinvented Hebrew?" Your complete lack of understanding of the Hebrew Bible is truly astounding! and your reference to Jer 23 is laughable. Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will raise unto David a righteous shoot, and he shall reign...

Your statement demonstrates your total lack of understanding of Judaism. In brief, 1) Salvation is a Christian concept based on original sin. This doctrine is anathema to Judaism and contrary to the teachings of the Hebrew Bible. 2) Jesus contravened the Mosaic Law on a number of occasions. 3)...

Your "evidence" would never hold up in a court of law. The 49th chapter of Isaiah has nothing to do with Jesus. According to widespread Christian beliefs, Jesus existed for all eternity (I am) and for many Christians Jesus is equated with God. The first verse is describing a human being, not a...

No point going around in circles. My reading of the Hebrew noting how often the term devar appears in this chapter indicates that God is referring to his word or message. The term appears in v2, v23, and v25. This is a momentous occassion as Gavriel is not only going to give Daniel understanding...

Thanks for your response, Cyber. I provided one rabbinical interpretation. Another is that the word is that of God to Jeremiah provided in chapter 32 which seems to correspond to the last year of Zedekiah's reign and the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple. But tradition relates the Jer 29...

You have misunderstood. My objections are based on multiple factors-poor translations among other things. All of my objections would still stand in the total absence of consideration of "substitutionary atonement" involving humans. The Hebrew bible condemns this in many places. see Ezek 18 as...

The Hebrew text says "y'kareit mashiach v'ayn lo"- an anointed one will be cut off and be no more OR literally "there is nothing to him". To translate v'ayn lo as "but not for Himself" is incorrect and misleading since it contains the concept of vicarious atonement when such a meaning is not in...

I should have been more specific. I was referring to human substitutionary/vicarious atonement.