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Jesus Christ Shed His Blood for Those in Hell

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Jesus Christ Shed His Blood for Those in Hell

“But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing upon themselves swift destruction” 2 Peter 2:1

There are some who are very much mistaken in their “theology”, that Jesus Christ only Died for those who are ultimately saved, and will be in heaven.

This verse in 2 Peter, is very clear, that even those who will end up in eternal destruction in hell, were indeed included in the Death of Jesus Christ on the Cross.

Lexical definition of “agorazō”, as used in 2 Peter 2:1

“figuratively: Christ is said to have purchased his disciples i. e. made them, as it were, his private property, 1Co_6:20 (this is commonly understood of god; but cf. Joh_17:9-10); 1Co_7:23 (with the genitive of price added; see τιμή, 1); 2Pe_2:1. He is also said to have bought them for god ἐν τῷ αἵματι αὐτοῦ, by shedding his blood, Rev_5:9; they, too, are spoken of as purchased ἀπό τῆς γῆς, Rev_14:3, and ἀπό τῶν ἀνθρώπων, Rev_14:4” (J H Thayer)

“to secure the rights to someone by paying a price, buy, acquire as property, fig. ext. of 1, of believers, for whom Christ has paid the price w. his blood: w. gen. of price ἠγοράσθητε τιμῆς you were bought for a price 1 Cor 6:20; 7:23 (s. τιμή 1). τινά 2 Pt 2:1. W. dat. of possessor and ἐν of price (B-D-F §219, 3;” (BDAG)

“ἀγοράζω agorazœ buy Matt 13:44, 46 and often; fig.: to purchase as one's own (1 Cor 6:20; 7:23; 2 Pet 2:1; Rev 5:9; 14:3, 4). [1:23]” (EDNT)

“Figuratively Christ is spoken of as having bought His redeemed, making them His property at the price of His blood (i. e., His death through the shedding of His blood in expiation for their sins), 1 Cor 6:20; 7:23; 2 Peter 2:1; see also Rev 5:9; 14:3-4” (W E Vine)

These false prophets and false teachers, who are heretics and cannot be saved as they are damned, because of their “refusal” (arnéomai), to “accept” Jesus Christ as their personal Saviour.

There is no other way to understand what this verse says. The Greek verb, “agorazō” used here, has the meaning of “to purchase, buy”. It is exactly the same Greek word, that is used a few times, for Jesus Christ’s Death on the Cross for truly born again believers, as in 1 Corinthians 6.20, 7.23; Revelation 5:9, 14:3-4; and has the same meaning as “lutroō”, used by Peter in his First Letter, “knowing that you were not redeemed (agorazō) with perishable things like silver or gold from your futile way of life inherited from your forefathers”.

Some have tried to argue against this verse referring to the blood shed on the cross for sins, by Jesus, because Peter here uses “despótēs” (Master), and not, “kurios. This is a strawman argument, as has absolute no merit! The same term “despótēs”, is used for Jesus Christ in Jude 4, “ton monon despotēn kai kurion hēmōn” (our only Master and Lord). And, in places like Acts 4:24, and Revelation 6:10, for Almighty God.

Some of the “Reformed” theologians, have sought in vain, to deny what is actually taught by Peter, by offering some very fanciful THEORIES!

John Gill

That in this verses, “agorazō”, refers to, “temporal mercies and deliverance, which these men enjoyed”

WHY does this word only have this meaning in this verse? WHY not in the other places when it is used for those who will be in heaven? This is being duplicate, and not honest in the way what the Bible actually says!

Matthew Henry

“Those who introduce destructive heresies deny the Lord that bought them. They reject and refuse to hear and learn of the great teacher sent from God, though he is the only Saviour and Redeemer of men, who paid a price sufficient to redeem as many worlds of sinners as there are sinners in the world”

Peter does NOT use the term “agorazō”, to show that the Death of Jesus Christ is “sufficient” for all the sinners of this world. This is mere speculative theology, and wishful thinking, he is speaking of the FACT that Jesus Christ has also PURCHASED these who are lost, by their REJECTING of Him as their Saviour

The “Reformed” commentary by Jamieson, Faussett and Brown, is honest in what they say;

“Whom the true doctrine teaches to be their OWNER by right of purchase. 'Denying Him who bought them, that He should be thereby their Master. Even the ungodly were "bought" by His "precious blood." It shall be their bitterest self-reproach in hell, that, as far as Christ's redemption was concerned, they might have been saved. The denial of His propitiatory sacrifice is included (cf. 1Jn 4:3)”

Peter tells us more of these false prophets and false teachers, in the next chapter, where in verse 3 he calls them “mockers”. Even these, says Peter, “The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance”. The “YOU”, here includes the “false prophets and false teachers”, that God does not “desire” (boúlomai) to be lost forever! It is quite pointless to refer these words only to the “elect”, as some do, because it is impossible for these to “perish”, and not “come to repentance”, which is what Peter is saying here. The oldest Greek manuscript, and textual support, is for the reading, “ὑμᾶς” (YOU), which was changed at a much later date to, “ἡμᾶς” (US), by some who did not like the FACT, that God DESIRED the salvation of the entire human race!

It is quite absurd and a fallacy, to argue as some to, that, if God “desired” the salvation of the entire human race, then the entire human race will be saved. It is equally true from the teachings of the Bible, that God “desires” that no humans, especially His children, so not sin, but the reality is, that humans do so every day! Does our failings mean that God has failed? Absolutely NOT! All humans have FREE WILL, so that they could live lives that please the Lord, or not. This is also the case for true believers in Jesus Christ, we CAN live lives that please the Lord every day, but the greater majority never do.

Salvation is a GIFT from the Lord, and can be REJECTED by any human. Jesus says this to the Jews who wanted to murder Him in John chapter 5, “You search the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; it is these that testify about Me; and you are unwilling to come to Me so that you may have life”. These were UNWILLING to come to Jesus Christ as their personal Saviour, so that they could have Eternal Life. They FAILED, and not the Lord!

The same FREE WILL in REJECTING Eternal Life, as clear in Acts 13:46:

“Then Paul and Barnabas grew bold and said, "It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken to you first; but since you reject it, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles”

Theses Jews REJECTED the Gospel for their salvation, and they CONSIDERED THEMSELVES not worthy of Eternal Life. God did NOT so consider them, THEY CHOSE to do so!

In Luke 22:19-21 we read

“And He took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to them, saying, This is My body which is given for you; do this in remembrance of Me. Likewise He also took the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new covenant in My blood, which is shed for you. But behold, the hand of My betrayer is with Me on the table”

Some argue, that the Greek does not have the word “is”, which is in italics in Versions like the King James. However, the Greek participle παραδιδόντος, used here, “of him who betrays”, is in the present tense, which means the use of “is”, is correct.

In Mark 14:24, we read the Account, “And He said to them, This is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many”.

Luke uses YOU, which no doubt includes Judas; and Mark uses MANY, on which John Calvin says;

“Which is shed for many. By the word many he means not a part of the world only, but the whole human race; for he contrasts many with one; as if he had said, that he will not be the Redeemer of one man only, but will die in order to deliver many from the condemnation of the curse”

On Luke Account we have:

Matthew Henry,

"By placing this after the institution of the Lord’s supper, though in Matthew and Mark it is placed before it, it seems plain that Judas did receive the Lord’s supper, did eat of that bread and drink of that cup; for, after the solemnity was over, Christ said, Behold, the hand of him that betrayeth me is with me on the table."

John Gill

"From Luke's account it appears most clearly, that Judas was not only at the passover, but at the Lord's supper, since this was said when both were over"

Dr A T Robertson

That betrayeth (tou paradidontos). Present active participle, actually engaged in doing it. The hand of Judas was resting on the table at the moment. It should be noted that Luke narrates the institution of the Lord’s Supper before the exposure of Judas as the traitor while Mark and Matthew reverse this order.

John Bengel

(ἀνάμνησιν) of Himself should be for the future celebrated by His disciples—V. g.] This particle serves as an argument that Judas was present, and took part in the Lord’s Supper. Comp. Luk 22:14 (“The twelve apostles sat with Him”)

Judas is also included in passages like 2 Peter 2:1, 3:9, etc, for whom Jesus Christ Died on the Cross.
 
Jesus Christ Shed His Blood for Those in Hell

... (truncated)
Some things are missing for me, although you appear to have some good points. Can you help me to understand your position on these issues?

1. I know you're not a universalist, since you say that those who teach destructive heresies end up in hell. But can you delineate the distinction between potential redemption and effective redemption? People who are unbelievers (whether they have heard the gospel or not), since scripture says "he who does not believe will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him," do you think redemption (purchase by Jesus' blood) is effective for them, or only potentially effective? Some of those unbelievers might later become believers, so we at least have to say that their purchase (redemption) was applied at the time of their conversion, would you agree? Or do you think that every person who ever lived is effectively redeemed, but something else is required for them to be saved?

2. Rev. 5:9 has this phrase: "redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation." Out of... means that actual (effective) redemption does not apply to every person on the face of the Earth, but this phrase "out of" means that those redeemed are a subset of the whole world of people, does it not? Then what do you do with this?
 
Some things are missing for me, although you appear to have some good points. Can you help me to understand your position on these issues?

1. I know you're not a universalist, since you say that those who teach destructive heresies end up in hell. But can you delineate the distinction between potential redemption and effective redemption? People who are unbelievers (whether they have heard the gospel or not), since scripture says "he who does not believe will not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him," do you think redemption (purchase by Jesus' blood) is effective for them, or only potentially effective? Some of those unbelievers might later become believers, so we at least have to say that their purchase (redemption) was applied at the time of their conversion, would you agree? Or do you think that every person who ever lived is effectively redeemed, but something else is required for them to be saved?

2. Rev. 5:9 has this phrase: "redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation." Out of... means that actual (effective) redemption does not apply to every person on the face of the Earth, but this phrase "out of" means that those redeemed are a subset of the whole world of people, does it not? Then what do you do with this?

Greetings. Thanks for your words.

It seems clear to me from many passages in the Bible, that the Death of Jesus Christ, is "potential", as no one was "actually saved" by His Dying on the cross, but that He "provided" a Way for all sinners to be saved, by His Death.

No one is saved "automatically", as Christ Himself says in His own words in Mark 1:15, that both "Repentance" and "Faith" are required for any sinner to be saved. Luke 24:47, in the Original text, like the NASB, ESV, etc, shows by Jesus' own words, that this "Repentance" is from "sins", and not simply a "change of mind" on our views on God or Jesus Christ, as some wrongly argue.

John 3:16-18 shows God's Saving Love for the entire human race, which leads to the salvation for those who "believe" in the Gospel Message, which must include repentance from sins. Those who refuse to believe, are damned to eternal punishment. When Jesus spoke with the Jews who wanted to murder Him in John chapter 5, He told them that they REFUSED to come to Him so that they could have eternal life (verses 39-40).

Jesus Christ has "paid the full price", once and for all, on the Cross, for the entire human race. However, there are conditions for any sinner to get saved, as in Mark 1:15; Luke 13:1-5, etc

In Romans 3:25, Paul says;

"whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed" (NASB)

"displayed publicly", is in the Greek, "protíthemai", which can have the meaning, "offered". And, instead of "propitiation", "hilastḗrion", is better rendered as "sin-offering", or, "Mercy Seat", as used in the LXX in the Old Testament. The Sin Offering that is OFFERED to all, must be ACCEPTED by any sinner.

However, it is very important to say, that no sinner can in and of themselves, ever turn to the Lord for their salvation. They must be "convicted" by God the Holy Spirit (John 16:8-10; Acts 2:37-38), which is usually through the preaching of the Word of God (Romans 10:8-21)
 
Greetings. Thanks for your words.

It seems clear to me from many passages in the Bible, that the Death of Jesus Christ, is "potential", as no one was "actually saved" by His Dying on the cross, but that He "provided" a Way for all sinners to be saved, by His Death.

No one is saved "automatically", as Christ Himself says in His own words in Mark 1:15, that both "Repentance" and "Faith" are required for any sinner to be saved. Luke 24:47, in the Original text, like the NASB, ESV, etc, shows by Jesus' own words, that this "Repentance" is from "sins", and not simply a "change of mind" on our views on God or Jesus Christ, as some wrongly argue.

John 3:16-18 shows God's Saving Love for the entire human race, which leads to the salvation for those who "believe" in the Gospel Message, which must include repentance from sins. Those who refuse to believe, are damned to eternal punishment. When Jesus spoke with the Jews who wanted to murder Him in John chapter 5, He told them that they REFUSED to come to Him so that they could have eternal life (verses 39-40).

Jesus Christ has "paid the full price", once and for all, on the Cross, for the entire human race. However, there are conditions for any sinner to get saved, as in Mark 1:15; Luke 13:1-5, etc

In Romans 3:25, Paul says;

"whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed" (NASB)

"displayed publicly", is in the Greek, "protíthemai", which can have the meaning, "offered". And, instead of "propitiation", "hilastḗrion", is better rendered as "sin-offering", or, "Mercy Seat", as used in the LXX in the Old Testament. The Sin Offering that is OFFERED to all, must be ACCEPTED by any sinner.

However, it is very important to say, that no sinner can in and of themselves, ever turn to the Lord for their salvation. They must be "convicted" by God the Holy Spirit (John 16:8-10; Acts 2:37-38), which is usually through the preaching of the Word of God (Romans 10:8-21)
Yes, I agree with all of this. So the main issue of "limited atonement" has to do with the atonement (resulting in reconciliation with God) is effective only for believers, so in that way it (that is, the effectiveness of atonement) is limited to believers. Would you agree?

If so, then Jesus' death potentially covers those in hell, but effectively doesn't apply to them, because the wrath of God remains on unbelievers (according to John 3:36). Agreed?

In regard to believing (or not), conviction from the Holy Spirit can come to a person only after God has revealed Himself to that person in some way. In order for a person to be pressured by a convicted conscience, and thus having fear of God for submission to the gospel message, that person already has to believe in God. No belief, no fear of God, and no conviction. All of this might come to a person in a moment, or over time. So then, two people hearing the same message may have different reactions (for or against) based on what they already believe. Agreed?
 
Yes, I agree with all of this. So the main issue of "limited atonement" has to do with the atonement (resulting in reconciliation with God) is effective only for believers, so in that way it (that is, the effectiveness of atonement) is limited to believers. Would you agree?

If so, then Jesus' death potentially covers those in hell, but effectively doesn't apply to them, because the wrath of God remains on unbelievers (according to John 3:36). Agreed?

In regard to believing (or not), conviction from the Holy Spirit can come to a person only after God has revealed Himself to that person in some way. In order for a person to be pressured by a convicted conscience, and thus having fear of God for submission to the gospel message, that person already has to believe in God. No belief, no fear of God, and no conviction. All of this might come to a person in a moment, or over time. So then, two people hearing the same message may have different reactions (for or against) based on what they already believe. Agreed?

Jesus Christ has paid the price for the sins of every single human who will ever live, up to the Time of His Second Coming, after which no one can be saved. This is the "potential", as no one is actually "saved" from their sins and eternal punishment. The Death of Jesus becomes "actual", when the sinner "repents" of their sins, and "believes" in the Gospel of Jesus Christ as their Saviour and Lord.

We have 2 interesting people in the Book of Acts. In chapter 10 we read of the conversion of Cornelius, of whom we are told, "He was a devout man and feared God along with his whole household. He did many charitable deeds for the Jewish people and always prayed to God", which is before he was saved. Peter was sent with the Gospel to Cornelius and his household, who believed and were saved. In chapter 16, we read of Lydia, "who worshiped God", again, before she was saved. The Lord "opened" her heart so that she understood the Message for her salvation, and she too was saved.

There are many instances in the New Testament, where the Gospel has been preached, as by Jesus Himself, and yet many of those who heard this, rejected this Message, and were no saved.

I would say that salvation itself is indeed a great mystery, because you can have a room of say 100 people, who hear the exact same Gospel Message, and not everyone will get saved. I do not believe that any sinner has it in themselves, to "accept" the Message for their salvation, without the "conviction" of the Holy Spirit.
 
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