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God Created Man/Adam Sin-ful

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No. God never fails in His work. But WE do.
Which is why He works with us for our salvation.

For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came about through Jesus Christ.
John 1:17 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=John 1:17&version=LEB

First of all, Isaiah 64:6 says our self-righteous acts, or works are not needed by God;
Correct. There is no boasting in our works. Why do you think it is that some people think our self-righteous acts are needed?
The Holy Spirit is God.
God helps us with His grace....
Yep. We are what we are by the grace of God:

But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace to me has not been in vain, but I labored even more than all of them, and not I, but the grace of God with me.
1 Corinthians 15:10 - https://www.biblegateway.com/passage?search=1 Corinthians 15:10&version=LEB
 
Hi Oz,
Yes,,,1 Corinthians 5:21 states that we will become (might become) as you've explained, IF we become disciples of Christ.

It is not definite because it is not known if the person reading the N.T. is going to become a disciple and follow Jesus.

It depends on us and our willingness to obey God and belong to His family. And, indeed, it is a process --- sanctification.

The word BECOME means we have not reached our goal yet.

Philippians 3:12
12Not that I have already obtained it or have already become perfect, but I press on so that I may lay hold of that for which also I was laid hold of by Christ Jesus.
NASB

"IT" would be referring to perfection. Paul did not expect to achieve perfection in this life. However, he is running to achieve the prize.
Philippians 3:14

wondering,

In Phil 3:12 (NASB), you'll notice 'it' is in italics, which means it is not in the Greek text. It has been included to help clarify the meaning.

In the context of v. 12, this is stated:

9 and may be found in Him, not having a righteousness of my own derived from the Law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which comes from God on the basis of faith, 10 that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection and the fellowship of His sufferings, being conformed to His death; 11 in order that I may attain to the resurrection from the dead.​

'Comes' also is not in the Greek text but rightly is included for the sake of meaning.

So the 'it' of v. 12 could refer to:
  • righteousness through faith in Christ, which is from God (v. 9);
  • to know God, the power of his resurrection and the fellowship of His sufferings (v. 10).
  • With the goal of attaining the resurrection from the dead (v. 11).
That's why the NIV translation of Phil 3:12a is, 'Not that I have already obtained all this, or have already arrived at my goal ...' So, the NIV translators understand v. 12a and 'it' (NASB) as referring to the content preceding this verse. I agree.

The NIV has captured the meaning of the verb teleiow (from the noun teleios), not as 'become perfect' (NASB) but 'arrived at my goal'. Paul had not reached 'a state of completion' (Robertson 1931:454).

I explain the meaning of teleios further in my article, Can Christians become absolutely sinless?

Oz

Works consulted

Robertson, A T 1931. Word pictures in the New Testament: The epistles of Paul, vol 4. Nashville, Tennessee: Broadman Press.
 
I believe in eternal security so long as I remain faithful to Jesus.

WIP,

So do I, on the basis of the Greek present tenses in John 5:24 and on the content of Matt 24:13.

I prefer the language of perseverance of the saints/believers. Christians who continue in their faith in Jesus until the end of life are saved.

Oz
 
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