Bible Study James 1:13

[Adams son]

Note the difference in these two translations:

Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone.

Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils: and he tempteth no man.

They say completely different things. In the former God is a would be "temptee" and in the latter God is a would be "temptor."

Looking at the Greek, the latter translation seems to be more viable and seems to say literally that "God is apart from temptations of evils" asserting the notion that God is not involved with tempting us with evil. And it also seems to make a lot more sense in the context of the passage itself. After all how does the former translation even make sense? What would God's own tempatability have to do with we ourselves being tempted? Notice how the latter translation makes complete sense.

 

[andy153]

Note the difference in these two translations:

Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone.

Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils: and he tempteth no man.

They say completely different things. In the former God is a would be "temptee" and in the latter God is a would be "temptor."

Looking at the Greek, the latter translation seems to be more viable and seems to say literally that "God is apart from temptations of evils" asserting the notion that God is not involved with tempting us with evil. And it also seems to make a lot more sense in the context of the passage itself. After all how does the former translation even make sense? What would God's own tempatability have to do with we ourselves being tempted? Notice how the latter translation makes complete sense.

James 1:12 Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. 13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: 14 but every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. 15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. 16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.

That's the KJV and it makes perfect sense to me. (in english)

with love and respect, andy153

 

[Adams son]

Note the difference in these two translations:

Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone.

Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils: and he tempteth no man.

They say completely different things. In the former God is a would be "temptee" and in the latter God is a would be "temptor."

Looking at the Greek, the latter translation seems to be more viable and seems to say literally that "God is apart from temptations of evils" asserting the notion that God is not involved with tempting us with evil. And it also seems to make a lot more sense in the context of the passage itself. After all how does the former translation even make sense? What would God's own tempatability have to do with we ourselves being tempted? Notice how the latter translation makes complete sense.

James 1:12 Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. 13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: 14 but every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. 15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. 16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.

That's the KJV and it makes perfect sense to me. (in english)

with love and respect, andy153

Oh really? And why does James decide to tell us not to say that when we are tempted we are tempted by God because God cannot be tempted by evil. Pray tell how that makes any sense.

 

[GodSaves]

[quote="Adams son":3ffbc]Note the difference in these two translations:

Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone.

Let no man, when he is tempted, say that he is tempted by God. For God is not a tempter of evils: and he tempteth no man.

They say completely different things. In the former God is a would be "temptee" and in the latter God is a would be "temptor."

Looking at the Greek, the latter translation seems to be more viable and seems to say literally that "God is apart from temptations of evils" asserting the notion that God is not involved with tempting us with evil. And it also seems to make a lot more sense in the context of the passage itself. After all how does the former translation even make sense? What would God's own tempatability have to do with we ourselves being tempted? Notice how the latter translation makes complete sense.

James 1:12 Blessed is the man that endureth temptation: for when he is tried, he shall receive the crown of life, which the Lord hath promised to them that love him. 13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: 14 but every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. 15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. 16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.

That's the KJV and it makes perfect sense to me. (in english)

with love and respect, andy153

Oh really? And why does James decide to tell us not to say that when we are tempted we are tempted by God because God cannot be tempted by evil. Pray tell how that makes any sense.[/quote:3ffbc]

James 1:13
"Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:" (AMP)

To tempt someone to do evil, is to do evil. So if God cannot do evil, He cannot tempt others to do evil. They are intrinsically connected because the tempting itself is sinning.

 

[Blazin Bones]

Adam, what exactly are you trying to prove. Are you looking for a contradiction or what?

 

[andy153]

Oh really? And why does James decide to tell us not to say that when we are tempted we are tempted by God because God cannot be tempted by evil. Pray tell how that makes any sense.

You have been careless with your words. James says tempted of God not tempted by God, there is a difference.

The KJV verse makes perfect sense to me, it is you who is unclear as to its meaning. Both the versions you quote use tempted by God perhaps this is where your confusion springs from ?

with love and respect, andy153

 

[Adams son]

Oh really? And why does James decide to tell us not to say that when we are tempted we are tempted by God because God cannot be tempted by evil. Pray tell how that makes any sense.

You have been careless with your words. James says tempted of God not tempted by God, there is a difference.

Oh and what is the difference?

 

[andy153]

Dear Adams son,

This is a bible study forum, it is a place of peaceful debate and learning. (or at least it should be)

I never take the higher ground when talking to others either in person or through the impersonal media of the internet.

You on the other hand start with yourself at the top looking down and expect others to be grateful for the wisdom you impart.

I am happy to enter into discussion and debate with anyone as long as it is conducted in a polite and respectful manner. I hate sarcasm and subtle tone changes that are used for effect to either gain support or demean others. Unfortunately, you appear to use these weapons to confront anyone who has a different viewpoint from yourself. This is unfortunate as I think I would enjoy debating with you.

Your original post states "facts" as you see them and leaves you little room for manoeuvre. You also isolate the verse from its proper setting, casting it adrift, thus making it an independent statement. This is bad study practice and unfortunately quite common.

If your original post had been formed as a question then we could perhaps have had a good debate.

I leave Greek to the Greek's and Hebrew to the Hebrew's.

Surely you don't need me to differentiate between tempted by God and tempted of God ? If you do, I suggest you also leave Greek to the Greek's and learn in English.

with love and respect, andy153

 

[evanman]

God cannot be tempted

God does not tempt.

I believe that this is where adam is having problems. Which translation is right?

 

[Adams son]

Surely you don't need me to differentiate between tempted by God and tempted of God ? If you do, I suggest you also leave Greek to the Greek's and learn in English.

with love and respect, andy153

Humor me and tell me the difference between the two.

 

[andy153]

Dear Adams Son,

I have no wish or desire to humour you or indeed entertain you in any shape or form.

By your question I am assuming you feel that tempted by God and tempted of God mean the same thing.

Am I correct in thinking this ?

with love and respect, andy153