C F Martin D28 acoustic guitar
- Jun 13, 2014
The question assumes that God's has wrath and it needed to be appeased.
I don't think that is correct.
I don't think that God was so ticked off at mankind, because man regularly fails to be perfect, that He killed His only begotten son in order to get over His anger.
In fact, I don't think anything that man does is of such great significance that it causes an emotional response in God.
Could you have a blind spot here?
“The LORD is a jealous and avenging God; the LORD is avenging and wrathful; the Lord takes vengeance on his adversaries and keeps wrath for his enemies.” (Nahum 1:2 ESV)
“For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who by their unrighteousness suppress the truth.” (Romans 1:18 ESV)
“From his mouth comes a sharp sword with which to strike down the nations, and he will rule them with a rod of iron. He will tread the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God the Almighty.” (Revelation 19:15 ESV)
Are rebel, sinful, unregenerate human beings adversaries of God? Of course! Unrighteous people suppress the truth, but God's wrath is revealed against them. The ungodly nations, in the end result, will experience the wrath of the Almighty God.
It should be obvious that to get into His presence, the ungodly need to appease God's wrath. We are told in 1 John 2:2 (ESV) how Jesus did that for all humanity - not to promote Universalism - but to make salvation accessible to all.