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Bible Study Revelation 19:8 fine linen is the righteousness of saints

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Revelation 19:8 "The fine linen is the righteousness of saints"

What is your righteousness before a holy and just God? Is it your own works or the imputed righteousness of our precious Lord Jesus Christ? The imputed righteousness of Christ is illustrated and clearly taught throughout the King James Bible of 1611.

In the beginning, after Adam and Eve had sinned and hid themslves from God because they were naked, we are told in Genesis 3:21: “Unto Adam also and to his wife did the LORD God make coats of skin, and clothed them.†An innocent animal was slain, and it's coat was made a covering for the naked, guilty pair. God has to cover us; we cannot cover ourselves acceptably before Him.

Isaiah 61:10 beautifully expresses this truth: “I will greatly rejoice in the Lord, my soul shall be joyful in my God; for he hath clothed me with the garments of salvation, he hath covered me with the robe of righteousness. . as a bride adorneth herself with her jewels.â€Â

Zechariah 3:1-4 illustrates the same truth. Satan stood at the right hand of Joshua the high priest to resist him. The Lord rebuked Satan. The Bible tells us that: “Joshua was clothed with filthy garments.†But God said: “Take away the filthy garments from him. And unto him he said, Behold, I have caused thine iniquity to pass from thee, and I will clothe thee with change of raiment.â€Â

In Matthew 22 our Saviour gives us a parable about a wedding where the guests were bidden to the feast. But the king saw there a man which had not on a wedding garment. "And he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment? And he was speechless." Then the man was bound hand and foot and cast into outer darkness.

You and I have no righteousness of our own doing. Isaiah 64:6 tells us: "All our righteousnesses are as filthy rags."

2 Corinthians 5:21 tells us, "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him".

Philippians 3:9 the apostle Paul expresses his desire to "be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith."

Revelation 19:7-9 tells us again of the wedding feast: "the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready. And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white; FOR THE FINE LINEN IS THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF SAINTS."

This last phrase is consistent with the rest of Scripture that it is not our righteousness that makes us acceptable unto God, but the imputed righteousness of Christ.

Versions that read just like the King James Bible are Tyndale's New Testament of 1534, Miles Coverdale 1535, the Bishop's Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible of 1599, Green’s interlinear, John Wesley's 1755 translation, Daniel Webster's of 1833, the Spanish Reina Valera of 1909 (el lino fino son las justificaciones de los santos), the Bible in Basic English 1970, Lamsa's translation of the Syriac Peshitta, the Third Millenium Bible, the 21st Century KJB version, and even the 2002 paraphrase called The Message which reads: "She was given a bridal gown of bright and shining linen. The linen is the righteousness of the saints."

However, the Catholic Douay, New American (St. Joseph of 1970), and the Jehovah Witness Bibles read in a similar way to many modern versions. St. Joseph: "the linen dress is the virtuous deeds of God's saints." That doctrine is now taught by the NKJ, NIV, ISV, Holman Christian Standard, and the NASB.

The NKJV, NASB, ISV (2003 International Standard Version), the 2001 ESV (English Standard Version), the brand new Holman Christian Standard Bible, and the NIV have, “the fine linen is the RIGHTEOUS ACTS of the saints.†(or "the fine linen is the righteous deeds of God's people").

The Holman Standard reads: "For the fine linen represents the righteous acts of the saints."

If our righteous acts or rignteous deeds are going to make up our wedding dress, it will be pretty soiled and tattered, don't you think?. At the very least, you have to admit that not all these versions teach the same truth in this verse. So which one is right?

The Greek word used here for "righteousness" is dikaioma. It can have several different meanings depending on the context. Liddell & Scott's Greek-English Lexicon list: "act of righteousness, judgment, punishment, plea of right, ordinance, decree, making or accounting righteous, a just claim or judgment of what is right".

Kittel's Theological Dictionary shows: "a legal claim, statute or ordinance, a judicial sentence especially of punishment, the actualization of justice, fulfillment of a legal requirement, righteous acts or righteous judgments".

The NASB complete concordance itself on page 1643 says the word comes from the verb meaning "to show to be righteous or to declare righteous". The NASB has variously translated the word dikaioma as: "justification, act of righteousness, ordinance, regulation, requirements". Likewise the NIV has translated it as: "regulation, righteous, act of righteousness, justification, requirements, righteous decree, and righteous requirements".

The context is very important in determining the sense of the word, and overall theology is paramount. If the NASB, NIV, NKJV had translated this as "the fine linen is the righteous requirements of the saints" there would not be much of a difference from the King James Bible, Geneva, Tyndale, Green, Darby, Spanish of 1909, Websters, and Third Millenium Bibles. The fine linen provided by Christ Himself meets all the legal requirements of the laws of a holy God.

However to translate this phrase as: "the fine linen is the RIGHTEOUS ACTS of the saints" overthrows the correct doctrine that there is no righteousness acceptable to God save that of Christ's alone - He is the LORD our righteousness.

I will show three commentaries relating to this verse. Those by Matthew Henry, John Gill and Jamieson, Fausset and Brown.

Matthew Henry says: "You have here a description of the bride, how she appeared; not in the gay and gaudy dress of the mother of harlots, but in fine linen, clean and white, which is the righteousness of saints; in the robes of Christ’s righteousness, both imputed for justification and imparted for sanctificationâ€â€the stola, the white robe of absolution, adoption, and enfranchisement, and the white robe of purity and universal holiness. She had washed her robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb; and these her nuptial ornaments she did not purchase by any price of her own, but received them as the gift and grant of her blessed Lord. 2. The marriage-feast, which, though not particularly described (as Mt. 22:4), yet is declared to be such as would make all those happy who were called to it, so called as to accept the invitation, a feast made up of the promises of the gospel, the true sayings of God.  

John Gill on Revelation 19:8 - "for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints, or "righteousnesses"; not good works, or their own righteousness; for though these are evidences of faith, by which the saints are justified, and are what God has prepared for them, that they should walk in them; yet these are not comparable to fine linen, clean and white, but are like filthy rags, and cannot justify in the sight of God; but the righteousness of Christ is meant, and justification by that; for that is the only justifying righteousness of the saints: and though it is but one, yet it may be called "righteousnesses", or "justifications", in the plural number; partly because of the many persons that are justified by it, as also because of the excellency of it."

"Christ's righteousness may be compared to fine linen, clean and white, because of its spotless purity; those that are arrayed with it being unblamable and irreprovable, and without spot and blemish, and without fault before the throne;... all the Lord's people will be righteous, they will have on the best robe, and wedding garment, which was despised by the Jews in Christ's time, who refused to come to the marriage feast; and their being arrayed with it will be owing to the grace of Christ, who grants it; and so Christ's righteousness is called the gift of righteousness, the free gift, and gift by grace, and abundance of grace; and faith, which receives it, and puts it on, is the gift of God, (Romans 5:15-17) (Ephesians 2:8) . Not only the garment is a gift of grace, but the putting of it on is a grant from Christ, and what he himself does, (Isaiah 61:10) (Zechariah 3:4)."

Jamieson, Fausset and Brown comment: "granted--Though in one sense she "made herself ready," having by the Spirit's work in her put on "the wedding garment," yet in the fullest sense it is not she, but her Lord, who makes her ready by "granting to her that she be arrayed in fine linen." It is He who, by giving Himself for her, presents her to Himself a glorious Church, not having spot, but holy and without blemish.

Jamieson, Fausset and Brown continue: "righteousness - Greek, "righteousnesses"; distributively used. Each saint must have this righteousness: not merely be justified, as if the righteousness belonged to the Church in the aggregate; the saints together have righteousnesses; namely, He is accounted as "the Lord our righteousness" to each saint on his believing, their robes being made white in the blood of the Lamb."

The King James Holy Bible gives us the correct doctrine of the grace of God through our Lord Jesus Christ. We are clothed in HIS righteousness, not our own "righteous acts".

For another article I have written about the religion of works being promoted by all modern versions, including the NKJV, see:

http://www.geocities.com/brandplucked/keepobey.html

  Will Kinney
 
righteousness of the saints

I appreciate your postings.

The message you posted on the righteousness of the saints was a good lesson for me, in that I recieved a clearer perspective on what the robe of the bride really is and is not.

Thanks so much.

:)
 
the imputed righteousness of Christ

"The message you posted on the righteousness of the saints was a good lesson for me, in that I recieved a clearer perspective on what the robe of the bride really is and is not.
Thanks so much. "

This is great to hear. I'm glad you learned something of value from the little study. If we are clothed in the righteousness of Christ, then we are as righteous as He is. "To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the Beloved. In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace." - Ephesians 1:6-7 Nothing else is acceptable before God. Certainly not our own righteous acts.

Will Kinney
 
Righteous Acts

Brand..However to translate this phrase as: "the fine linen is the RIGHTEOUS ACTS of the saints" overthrows the correct doctrine that there is no righteousness acceptable to God save that of Christ's alone - He is the LORD our righteousness.
"the fine linen is the RIGHTEOUS ACTS of the saints" in Jesus is a good translation. Also "Christ alone -- He is the LORD our righteousness". IN Christ, He is our covering, He does his work through his children -- the RIGHTEOUS ACTS in us are the work of Jesus -- not our work. While done 'in us' we take no credit for it.

Matthew 25:31-46. Speaks of the coming of Christ. The illustration of the sheep on the right and the goats on the left. The righteous (sheep/on the right) have performed 'righteous acts' -- but take no credit for it. The unrighteous (goats/ on the left) say they have done all these things -- they want credit for what they have done.

Brand...I will show three commentaries relating to this verse. Those by Matthew Henry, John Gill and Jamieson, Fausset and Brown.
1 Corinthians 1:1 Paul says "I did not come with superiority of speech or of wisdom, proclaiming to you the testimony of God." 19 "I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, and the cleverness of the clever I will set aside." 21 "For since in the wisdom of God the world through its wisdom did not come to know God,.." 27 "God has chosen the weak things of the world to shame the things which are strong"

2 Timothy 3:16 "All scripture is given by inspiration of God..."

Psalms 32:8 God "will instruct you and teach you in the way which you should go..."

No matter how wise the works of Matthew Henry, John Gill and Jamieson, Fausset and Brown appear, I do not consider them inspired of God, and cannot make them equal to scriptures. God working through the holy spirit is the best teacher one can have.

When I study with a person, I find it most helpful to use the version of the Bible they are using. When God is our teacher, it dosn't matter which version of the Bible is used. (Though I do back off of translations that try to 'interpret' the scripture rather than 'translate' it).

Christ our Righteousness, justification, imputation is a subject not contemplated enough. Appreciate!

Scripture references NASU, emphasis added.

Dex
 
Rev. 19:8

Quote:
Brand..However to translate this phrase as: "the fine linen is the RIGHTEOUS ACTS of the saints" overthrows the correct doctrine that there is no righteousness acceptable to God save that of Christ's alone - He is the LORD our righteousness.


Dex>>>the fine linen is the RIGHTEOUS ACTS of the saints" in Jesus is a good translation. Also "Christ alone -- He is the LORD our righteousness". IN Christ, He is our covering, He does his work through his children -- the RIGHTEOUS ACTS in us are the work of Jesus -- not our work. While done 'in us' we take no credit for it. "


Hi Dex, the problem with your interpretation is that we would then have some of God's people with zero or very few righteous acts (ie. the thief on the cross) or deathbed conversions, and then you would have some people with lots of "good deeds" to make up their fine linen. There is only one fine linen and it is equally distributed to every saint. It is the righteousness of Christ.

You also talk about the message supposedly being the same in all bibles and you use the nasb update.

Can you prove that God can be deceived by people using the nasb?

Do you think the nasb is the inerrant, perfect words of God or just another "reliable version" that does not always follow the correct texts and has some errors scattered here and there?

Do you have a complete, inspired, inerrant Bible or just a bunch of conflicting, multiple choice approximations of what God maybe said?

If nothing eles, answer this one. Does the nasb teach that God can be deceived by people?

If it does, would you still consider the message to be the same and the nasb a perfect bible even though it teaches that God was deceived?

Will Kinney
 
Righteousness Credited

Brand.. Hi Dex, the problem with your interpretation is that we would then have some of God's people with zero or very few righteous acts (ie. the thief on the cross) or deathbed conversions, and then you would have some people with lots of "good deeds" to make up their fine linen. There is only one fine linen and it is equally distributed to every saint. It is the righteousness of Christ.
In the illustration of the sheep and the goats, it appears that I make "our suffering" or 'our works' the righteousness of Christ", that is not correct. Correct is "not having a righteousness of my own derived from the Law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which comes from God on the basis of faith." Philippians 3:9 NASU

Romans 4:3 "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness."
4:8 "Blessed is the man whose sin the Lord will not take into account"
24 "but for our sake also, to whom it will be credited, as those who believe in Him..."

Revelation 19:8 "for the fine linen is the righteous acts of the saints" NASU
The "righteous acts" of Jesus is the "fine linen" that is "credited" to the Saints.

Romans 8:18 "For I consider that the sufferings of this present time are not worthy to be compared with the glory that is to be revealed to us. -- these acts are not "righteous acts".
Romans 5:19 "For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous."
Scripture quotes - NASU, emphasis added

Brand...Does the nasb teach that God can be deceived by people?

That would depend upon whose voice one is listening to. Jesus says 'My sheep hear my voice". Every Bible I have studied has paradoxes. So, send me the NASU refrence you are thinking about.

Conclusion: Over the past few years, I have been quite devastated because of all emphasis placed on "a better translation". Seems there is a contest over which Bible is 'more perfect'. To me, it sounds like the disciples arguing over who is the greatest. "You diligently study the Scriptures because you think than by them you possess eternal life. These are the Scriptures that testify about me, yet you refuse to come to me to have life."John 5:39 NIV

Quite frankly, I often read all three translations that I presently have, and appreciate the different expressions used. The stories in the OT and the parables Jesus told -- don't lie, it's hard to twist them around. Where differences appear, the scripture is a 'witness' to itself in other places

John 12:38 "Lord who has believed our message and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?" NIV
Dex
 
NASB the Israelites deceived God

Brand...Does the nasb teach that God can be deceived by people?
That would depend upon whose voice one is listening to. Jesus says 'My sheep hear my voice". Every Bible I have studied has paradoxes. So, send me the NASU refrence you are thinking about.


Hi Dex, Psalm 78:36 in the NASB.

Will K
 
OK, I did not read all of the comments made. But it appears that the Greek word used in Revelation 19:8 is being confused with another, though closely related, word.

DIKAIWMATA - Nominative neuter plural of DIKAIWMA - regulation, requirement; righteous deed/act, judgment; acquittal.

That is the word used here - "righteous acts." It does not mean "righteousness."

DIKAIWS means "righteous."

DIKAIOW means "to justify."

DIKAIWSIS means "justification."

DIKAIOSUNH means "righteousness."

The word used here is DIKAIWMATA - plural of DIKAIWMA - "righteous acts."

I do not know how important you all may feel that this distinction is, but thought I'd put in my two cents. The NASB is not wrong there. The Greek word in both the majority text and the critical text (as well as the TR) is not DIKAIOSUNH ("righteousness"), but DIKAIWMATA ("righteous acts").

It is the same word as used in Revel. 15:4 "but your righteous acts have been revealed." (KJ has "but your judgments are made manifest.") Notice that the same word, parsed the same way, that the KJV translated as "righteousness" in 19:8 is translated as "judgments" in 15:4. That is because words are dynamic. Context and the grammatical structure it is found in is important. Words do not mean exactly the same thing in different contexts. Not in Greek. Not in English. Every Greek word should not be translated the same way every time into English.

Here's what Robinson's Word Pictures has on Revel. 19:8:
Robertson's Word Pictures of the New Testament

That she should array herself (ina peribalhtai). Sub-final object clause subject of edoqh (was given to her) with ina and the second aorist middle (direct) of periballw to fling around. This bridal dress is a gift from Christ. This form, edoqh (it was given), occurs some 20 times in this book. In fine linen, bright and pure (bussinon lampron kaqaron). See Revelation 19:14 for the same raiment on those accompanying "The Word of God" and for the seven angels in Revelation 15:6. See by contrast the garments of the harlot (Revelation 17:4; Revelation 18:16). For bussinon see Revelation 18:16. The righteous acts of the saints (ta dikaiwmata twn agiwn). This is the explanation (gar) of the bridal dress and explains why there is work for the Bride as well as for Christ (Philippians 2:12). See Revelation 15:4 for dikaiwma (also Romans 5:18)

The Bible Knowledge Commentary says,
The fine linen with which the bride will be adorned is explained as representing the righteous acts of the saints (Rev. 19:8). (In the OT the high priest’s clothing included linen: Ex. 28:42; Lev. 6:10; 16:4, 23, 32.) While some think this refers to the fact that the saints are justified by faith, the plural expression “the righteous acts†seems to refer to the righteous deeds wrought by the saints through the grace of God. Though all this has been made possible by the grace of God, the emphasis here seems to be on the works of the bride rather than on her standing as one who has been justified by faith.
Walvoord, John F., and Zuck, Roy B., The Bible Knowledge Commentary, (Wheaton, Illinois: Scripture Press Publications, Inc.) 1983, 1985.

Here's what the KJV has for Romans 5:18

Romans 5:18 So then, as through one trespass there is condemnation for everyone, so also through one righteous act there is life-giving justification for everyone.

The word translated "righteous act?" That's right - DIKAIWMA. The same word as used in Revel. 19:8. The KJV got it right there. As the BKC pointed out, it is not the term "righteousness," but "righteous acts." The BKC is made up of those who firmly believe in justificatoion by faith alone, as do I. But we cannot change God's Word to make it say something that it simply does not.

The KJV gets it wrong in Romans 2:26 also, IMO:

Romans 2:26 Therefore if the uncircumcision keep the righteousness of the law, shall not his uncircumcision be counted for circumcision?

The word there is DAKAIWMATA - "righteous acts, judgments, requirements." "Requirements" seems a better choice there.

The KJV has the following in Romans 5:16, 18

Romans 5:16, 18 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.

Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.


"Justification works in Romans 5:16, though it might be more accurately "judgment." It's clear either way - we have been judged/declared to be righteous. So the KJ is OK there. Since in 5:18 the word used is DIKAIWSIS - "justification," that validates the KJ choice of "justification" for 5:16 IMO.

However, "righteousness" is not the best transation in Romans 5:18 - it should be "through the righteous act of one" or "through one righteous act." And it makes sense.

Just as by one trespass all were condemned, this verse tells us that by one righteous act all are justified. Adam ate from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil - one offense. Jesus died in our place - one righteous act.

Edited-added: Now I certainly understand your concern that an error in translating theGreek could lead to a misunderstanding in theology by the reader. But isn't that what the KJ has fostered here in Romans 5:18?

It was not Jesus' righteousness that saved us, but His righteous act. It was not an accumulation of all of Jesus' righteous living while here on earth that justified us. It was His death on the cross in our behalf - for our sins - which justifies us. The focus should be on the cross.

It's not so much that the KJV has "mis-translated" DIKAIWMA that I am concerned about as claiming that the NASB, and some other translations, have mistranslated DIKAIWMATA and hence distorted the Bible's teaching on justification.

I don't imagine that anyone viewing this thread feels as strongly as I do regarding the justification by grace alone through faith alone in Christ alone as I do. But God'sWord should stand on its own.

Enough said. The NASB did not get it wrong in Revelation 19:8. Words are not static. Their meanings are determined by context as well as lexical meaning. The same word may and should be translated differently in different contexts. Even the KJV did this. The translators of the NASB are strong supporters of justification by faith. But they translated Revelation 19:8 according to their consciences.

The standard is not any English "translation" made by fallible men, but the original writings - in the original language. Anything else may exalt the work of man over the work of the Holy Spirit.

BTW, the word used in the Greek septuagint for Psa. 78:26 is APATAW - "to trick or cheat." The point is not that God can be "deceived" or "fooled," but that this was what the context is saying - they tried to deceive the Lord and lied to Him.

I don't know Hebrew. Most translations have "flattered" there rather than "deceived." Perhaps the NASB committee could have chosen a better word there - don't know. But it is an excellent translation in general.

FG
 
by FG BTW, the word used in the Greek septuagint for Psa. 78:26 is APATAW - "to trick or cheat." The point is not that God can be "deceived" or "fooled," but that this was what the context is saying - they tried to deceive the Lord and lied to Him.

Will & FG -- Appreciate comments!

Because of the darkness we dwell in, we think (man thinks) we can "deceive", "lie", "tempt" God. As written in Isaiah 29:16 Man turns things around. Jesus endured the templations, the lieing, the deceitfulness of man, yet was holy in the sight of God.
Dex
 
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