Mujahid Abdullah said:
Actualy There was an "edit" to what would be considered the bible, im sure you know of the council of nicea, This council originally sought to dispell the beleif of Arienism, which held Jesus Not to be God. It also wnted to unify the Alexandrian church (where p52 was accepted). They then decided for you and all christians of today which docterine was christian, without any imput from an apostle or Jesus. This is seperate from my personal and unprovable BELEIF that before even this council the Bible was corrupted by its followers immediatly following Jesus'(AS) ascend to heaven, but we need not get into this because its irrealavent and unprovable on my part.
Just a warning, I do not have the time to reply to your whole response. I will do the first few paragraphs.
Concerning Nicea, the Council of Nicea did not even address canonical issues and made no list of books. In fact it was not an issue at Nicea.
It is true that Nicea considered the Arian doctrines. It is also true that Arius had a different view of the complete deity of Jesus Christ. Neither did the council have anything to do with the "Acceptance" of P52.
Concerning your accusation of corruption before Nicea.... Since we have many manuscripts before Nicea, and they all (except for minor variants and scribal mistakes) reflect the same Jesus, the same apostles, and the same doctrine, is it not then pure fancy that there might possibly be some manuscript out there that will not match up?
Actually, the papyri have more scribal errors then the later vellum or parchments used in the Siniaticus or Alexandrian texts. Think about it a little. When the papyri were copied, Christianity was under persecution. Rome was burning all the scriptures they could find. The non-professional scribes that copied the papyri did it in peril of their lives. Naturally they would be a little less accurate then the post Nicean professional scribes who copied parchments in their scripturium offices.
The fact that the earlier papyri has slightly more errors and the later vellum parchments have more accuracy is natural. Also, consider that vellum parchments copied in Alexandria and those copied in Byzantium have differed from the beginning. This would also tend to demonstrate that no Nicean coverup happened. If there was an editing at Nicea, then why did the Byzantine and Alexandrian traditions of manuscripts occur?
But the bottom line is that no discussions on manuscripts were even discussed at Nicea.
Mujahid Abdullah said:
mondar said:
http://www-user.uni-bremen.de/~wie/text ... -list.html
This is a list of 127 papyri. Of course some date from the 2nd century, none of them date as late as the 8-10 centuries. Just look over the link provided. Your claim is not based in fact.
I like how you just dismiss my claim as factless without even looking at the facts
http://www.kchanson.com/papyri.html#Ryl
Here is a complete list of the most complete NT papyri - I know you did not look at the facts because the Egeerton Papyri and the Rylands papyrus are in fact one in the same, P52 as you correctly called it. So we are speaking of the same work.
Let me just double check what you are asserting here. Are you saying that another name for P52, commonly called the Rylands papyrus is the "Egerton Papyrus?" Really? Anyone can get a picture of the P52 and a pic of Egerton and see they are not the same thing. Why would you say this?
Mujahid Abdullah said:
mondar said:
How would the existance of the egerton Gospel show corruption of the New Testament? You confuse the dating of manuscripts with the issue of corruption.
You asserted in your post that this P52 is an account of the gospel of John - however, the two are quite different.
I am guessing here you are claiming that P52 is not a fragment of the Gospel of John? On what basis do you make such a fantastic claim? If need be, we can get a copy and look at the koine greek (if you can read Greek?). In fact it is a copy of part of John 18.
Mujahid Abdullah said:
But are also quite simmalar - however not copies of one another, and P52 has the account of the mirracle of the fruit which is not found in any modern bible.
No, the Egerton papyrus has accounts not found in John, P52 is strait out of John 18.
Mujahid Abdullah said:
Now, maybe our definitions of "corrupted" are different. I would say that the word of God is unchangeable and unloseable, so it seems that the miracle of the fruit was lost for the last few centuries.
I dont believe Egerton's Gospel was ever considered Canonical by the early Church. Nevertheless, lets just assume that it is some sort of "lost gospel." How would the existance of new material not referred to in other gospels prove that later writers edited out certain truths? The synoptics have very different stories then the Gospel of John, yet people do not assert that this proves the bible is corrupt, or edited. Your comparing apples with oranges and getting grapes.
Mujahid Abdullah said:
In addition, this gospel was most likely used by the Alexandrian Church, and thus declared, by the nicean council, to be hereticle or apochraphyl, and not included in the first codified christian bible.
What part of the Council of Nicea are you referring to? The records of Nicea make no such declaration. In fact no council ever referred to the Egerton fragments directly at all.
Mujahid Abdullah said:
[quote="mondar']
As an illustration, if I read the "Red Badge of Courage," a fictional story of a man in the civil war. The I find another novel that writes a different novel by a different writer, and he writes about the "private life of the guy in the red badge of courage," just because there is different information, it does not make it "contradictory."
It would not make them contradictory.....(snip).....[/quote]
Good, that was my point. Then it is true that just because Egertons gospel was discovered, that does not prove that John or the Synoptics are "contradictory." They are just covering different events.
Gotta go.
[quote="Mujahid Abdullah":fmk6026h]
mondar said:
To substantiate a claim of "corruption" you would would need two copies of the same book. You would have to show that there are two publishers that use two different stories of the same event in the red badge of courage, or change something that the original writer wrote. The egerton gospel provides no such evidence. It simply reflects different events then what is written by the apostles and disciples of Christ in the NT. Most likely the reason the egerton Gospel was never copied extensively as the other gospels were copied was because the early Christian community did not regard it as scripture.
P52 shows that it was deleted from the "oficial" word of God by the nicean council, which is why we didnt know about it until '84.
mondar said:
LOL, I cannot put my finger on your thinking here and why you bring up the KJV. That seems totally bizarre to me. The KJV certainly has translation issues, but that has nothing to do with the issue of the textual transmission of the text. A bad translation does not mean the text has been corrupted.
Again, an illustration-- If I translate the writings of Machevelli into english, and someone claims I botched the translation, we would still have the Italian original and could show that it is a bad translation. Certainly the New World Translation is a corrupt translation, but it did not mar the greek texts. A translation does not corrupt texts.
A translation doesnt corrupt a text as long as you have the original translation, but greek is not the original translation of those gospels - in fact hebrew may not have been the original translation - Aramaic is most likely the language of the original words of Jesus(AS). We dont have this Aramaic, so we can compromise on Hebrew, which is what the original gnostic texts that were banned from the bible by the nicean council were written in. When you get to the greek gospels the originals date back to the 4th century to the 10th century - which are all most likely post-nicean council. So the greek texts have already gone through the corruption process, up until the 20th century, when we discover the existance of these pre-nicean accounts of the word of God.
mondar said:
By the way, the Egerton gospel is not a gnostic text. The Christian gnostics were 2nd century, and wrote books of a very different nature then either the NT, or the egerton gospel.
We can consider it apocharphyl then how bout that, apochraphyl or gnostic, it didnt pass the nicean creed, so it was ommitted.
mondar said:
Concerning the Uthman revision, it is true that no copies of the Koran exist from before Uthman, why? Could it be Uthman burnt them all? The Koran has a state sponsored revision.
There was one Quran written down on paper before Uthman)RA), ir was compiled by a woman named Umm Khalid(RA) and after her death was given to the governor of Medina, and for some unknown reason he had it destroyed. After that Uthmaan commisioned four HUGE copies to be made (58 cm tall).
One still exists in Cairo, you can go and see it today. The others were destroyed in accidental fires in Mecca, Medina, and Damscus. Before this the Quran was memorized by heart. We can see that this memorization was succeful from various ayats found on animal bones and rocks that completly match to the Cairo Uthmani Quran. I know you feel that i am attacking you book so you attack mine in response, but the Quran is not realy part of this discussion, so lets move away from the Quran and leave it for another thread.
mondar said:
Before Constantine, the scriptues was copied by non-professional scribes, in hidden places, on the cheapest of materials (papyri). Why? Because of state persecution. The NT was copied by individuals not even assocated with each other, who did not know each other, because Christianity was persecuted, and had no organization. The Muslim revision was done by the state. Who had the ability to purposely "corrupt" a text?
According to James Royce in his book 'Scribal habbits in Early Greek and New testament Papyri" P52 as well as many of the Nag Hamadi texts WERE penned by PROFFESIONAL SCRIBES. He bases this on the language used in the Papyri as well as the parrallels in the various gospels. In the second century Christians werent being Pesecuted Everywhere, and in these areas suchas palestine, syria, egypt - we see the majority of these ancient gnostic and apochraphyl texts being found.
Now you use the word "revision", I hope this isnt on purpose. The time when Uthamn(RA) put the Quran down in book form, and codified its chapter order is known as the Uthamani Recension, not revision. in addition, this was done by many different hafuz ul Quran (memorizer of Quran) who all agreed on the authenticity of what was written down. They all agreed what was written on those pages of date palm, was in fact what was memorized in their heads. Now Uthman (RA) was a companion of Muhamed(SAW) and a trusted individual amongst the Muslim populace, but he was not above criticism for his actions - in fact he was assasinated by one of his detractors. In addition, what would Uthma(RA)n gain from chaging the Quran? There are no mentions in the Quran itself regarding the Islamic state, and none of the other high ranking companions (Ali, Muawwiya, Hasan, Husein, Abdullah ibn Umar RA) expressed any concerns in regards to the Qurans Uthman(RA) produced, and these men had the religious authority to do so.[/quote][/quote:fmk6026h]