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The man of sin

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G139 αἵρεσις haireses or in Strong's Concordance means . If John teaches there is an "antichrist" and "antichrists", but a man teach only the latter, he is bending the scriptures to fit his will. Consider Romans 16.17-8 Merriam Webster is also clear on the defenition of heresy.
It is true, that John teaches both an anti-Christ and many anti-Christs. If we are understanding this matter, we should see that Satan has a "kingdom." And in that "kingdom" there are many "expressions" of the anti-Christ, meaning for example, a LEGION of devils in a single man. But they are all of the same "kingdom" of the devil. So in that structure their is an "administrative head" who is Satan. There are also both male and female expressions, for example Jezebel expressed in Rev. to the churches or the "spirit of whoredoms" that was "in the midst" of blinded Israel.

And the devil also has children, presumably "planted" as seed, replicating the sower of that seed, Satan. The mistake many make is when they see "people" as that seed. They are not. There is an entire "other" narrative in the scriptures that deals with this "unseen" world, it's powers, it's kingdom, it's rulers and the many occupants therein. Though they are one, they are many.

And we wonder why it's difficult territory to traverse.

At some point in my life, I wondered why the world was evil. And for quite some time I never factored in these equations of scripture, BECAUSE I, myself, was blinded to that adverse unseen aspect of our present reality, by the fact of it, even after salvation.
 

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The word "heresy" literally means a twisting of the scriptures. It appears but once. Acts 24.14.

G139 αἵρεσις haireses or in Strong's Concordance means . If John teaches there is an "antichrist" and "antichrists", but a man teach only the latter, he is bending the scriptures to fit his will. Consider Romans 16.17-8 Merriam Webster is also clear on the defenition of heresy.
Well, no. "Heresy" literally means "I prefer," or "choice," which is precisely what Strong's and Mirriam-Webster show. At least, that is what the word initially meant. But as with many words, the definition has changed over time and long ago came to mean something much stronger. Heresy is something that is opposite to orthodoxy--"right belief"--and is typically used of those teachings which are opposed to Scripture, which lead away from God. It is usually a denial of core tenets of the faith. This is why it is typically reserved for non-Christian sects and their teachings, and why even theologians and Bible teachers are very hesitant to use it against others.

As for Acts 24:14, the better word is "sect," which is what most translations use. And the Greek word hairesis is used nine times in the NT, not once. See 2 Pet. 2:1, for instance.

Ultimately, that is an administrative choice. I've said my piece. Good day.
It has nothing to do with an administrative choice.
 

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Does Satan, the god of this world, the prince of the power of the air, the spirit of disobedience blind people to the Gospel free?

This is a fairly simple question with a fairly simple answer of YES. Whether anyone likes that conclusion or not is quite irrelevant to the facts of scriptures showing the matters, and regardless of what "alternatives" they propose that don't fit the bill of scripture depictions. OF which we have only 'shared' a few of many.

Your alternative will, "most likely" just blame and accuse mankind only and completely disregard that there IS another party that is not man, involved.
If I had asked for biblical proof that Satan has blinded the minds of unbelievers, then 2 Cor. 4:4 would be that proof--because it clearly states that that is the case.

The Word is the proof. If you are requesting "some other" evidence you'll have to be more clear yourself on what evidence you are asking for OR propose alternative that eliminate Satan's operations IN MAN.
But you have not given any Scripture that proves what you are saying. You have not shown that you understand what the Scriptures you are posting are saying. You are posting Scripture and assuming everyone else can read your thoughts on them. You haven't even answered my question of what you mean by "in man," even though I have asked three times or so.

I think the scriptural proof is as clear as the nose on any man's face.

2 Corinthians 12:7
And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure.

IF we can't get off the dime on the obvious, I doubt finding any headway is possible.
There are several ways of understanding this verse. What do you think it is saying?
 

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If I had asked for biblical proof that Satan has blinded the minds of unbelievers, then 2 Cor. 4:4 would be that proof--because it clearly states that that is the case.
Brilliant deduction. That's why it's pointless, when this fact is pointed out, to say, where is the proof, where is the proof, when the proof is there to observe.

But I totally understand that the majority of believers CAN'T see this obvious state of affairs, and see, rather, just a person. When that is not and can not be the case.

But you have not given any Scripture that proves what you are saying.
Pardon me but you just concurred with it.
 

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Has anyone figured out who the man of sin is yet?
If you think it's that little flesh man (or the whole string of them) sitting in his little wooden gilded chair wearing a pointy little hat I'd suggest he's just a man like anyone else with a set of nice silk cloth and totting a staff to impress his followers.

Kind of pointless to see the "anti-Christ" spirit as a man to start with, imho.
 

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Brilliant deduction. That's why it's pointless, when this fact is pointed out, to say, where is the proof, where is the proof, when the proof is there to observe.
When what "fact" is pointed out?

But I totally understand that the majority of believers CAN'T see this obvious state of affairs, and see, rather, just a person. When that is not and can not be the case.
What "obvious state of affairs"?

Pardon me but you just concurred with it.
Concurred with what, exactly? All I have agreed with is that 2 Cor. 4:4 says that Satan has blinded the minds of unbelievers, because it is very clearly stated in the verse. Your point was that "Satan is in the flesh of man". So how does Satan blinding the minds of unbelievers support your point?

A few things you still haven't address:

And please tell me what you mean by "in man" or "in the flesh of man"? (fourth or fifth time asking)
...

1 John 3:8a according to the ESV: "Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil
1 John 3:8a according to the KJV: "He that committeth sin is of the the devil"
1 John 3:8a according to smaller: "Sin is of the devil"

You don't consider what the Bible says and what you say it says to be different in meaning and intent?
...

You stated: "Satan is IN the flesh of man,according to the Word of God." The claim that Satan is "in the flesh of man" (whatever that means), implies that Satan is in the flesh of all men and women who have ever existed or will exist. What evidence from Scripture do you have? How is it that Satan, a single, created being, can accomplish this?
 

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When what "fact" is pointed out?
When I made a statement of fact, that Satan, the god of this world, the prince of the power of the air, the spirit of disobedience, blinds the minds of all unbelievers of the Gospel, and cite the many scriptures that show this, it is pointless for you to say 'where is the proof.' The proof is via the citings themselves. Mark 4:15, Acts 26:18, Romans 11:8, 2 Cor. 3:14, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2 ALL show and prove the same matters.

It would be incumbent on YOU to prove these statements of fact not true.

So, your task, it would seem, is to prove that these are not facts or do not say what they say or provide some alternative rendering that removes or eliminates Satan, the wicked one, the god of this world, the prince of the power of the air, the spirit of disobedience, the spirit of slumber, from the equations of scripture.

Which I might find quite impossible to change. Why you resort to this angle will remain odd to me.

The scriptures do contain vast amounts, depictions of facts if you prefer, of "unseen spiritual adversaries."

So, you say where is the proof? The proof is in the conveyances. Whether they are believed or not is an entirely different matter. And, as previously noted, since NONE of this aspect of the scriptures is subject to "empirical evidence" or "forensic" evidence, it is taken by faith in the Words of God that convey these matters.

And if you say that Satan is not a "real" adverse spiritual presently working entity you know there are problems with those kinds of claims.

So, I cite for example, this statement of fact from Paul:

2 Corinthians 12:7
And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure.

and you respond with:
You stated: "Satan is IN the flesh of man,according to the Word of God." The claim that Satan is "in the flesh of man"
So, I cite the many THOUSANDS of examples of Satan or devils IN man from the Gospels or the fact that scripture makes a direct link of Satan to SIN, in Mark 4:15 or 1 John 3:8, and you again and again say where is the proof?

What proof is it you can't seem to see when it stares us both in the face.

You wouldn't be the first person I would cite 2 Cor 12:7 to, bold it in red, and people will say and claim "it's not there in red" to see.

Sorry, it is there in red, to see.
 
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When I made a statement of fact, that Satan, the god of this world, the prince of the power of the air, the spirit of disobedience, blinds the minds of all unbelievers of the Gospel, and site the many scriptures that show this, it is pointless for you to say 'where is the proof.' The proof is via the citings themselves. Mark 4:15, Acts 26:18, Romans 11:8, 2 Cor. 3:14, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2 ALL show and prove the same matters.
This is not what has happened. Now you are clearly changing your argument. Anyone can go back and easily see that I have asked you to prove your statement "Satan is IN the flesh of man,according to the Word of God."

It would be incumbent on YOU to prove these statements of fact not true.

So, your task, it would seem, is to prove that these are not facts or do not say what they say or provide some alternative rendering that removes or eliminates Satan, the wicked one, the god of this world, the prince of the power of the air, the spirit of disobedience, the spirit of slumber, from the equations of scripture.
Nope. You made a truth claim so the burden of proof is on you to prove it to be true. It is fallacious to claim the other has the burden of proof to prove your claims false.

The scriptures do contain vast amounts, depictions of facts if you prefer, of "unseen spiritual adversaries."
Of course they do; I have never said they don't.

So, you say where is the proof? The proof is in the conveyances. Whether they are believed or not is an entirely different matter. And, as previously noted, since NONE of this aspect of the scriptures is subject to "empirical evidence" or "forensic" evidence, it is taken by faith in the Words of God that convey these matters.

And if you say that Satan is not a "real" adverse spiritual presently working entity you know there are problems with those kinds of claims.

So, I cite for example, this statement of fact from Paul:

2 Corinthians 12:7
And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure.

and you respond with:


So, I cite the many THOUSANDS of examples of Satan or devils IN man from the Gospels or the fact that scripture makes a direct link of Satan to SIN, in Mark 4:15 or 1 John 3:8, and you again and again say where is the proof?

What proof is it you can't seem to see when it stares us both in the face.

You wouldn't be the first person I would cite 2 Cor 12:7 to, bold it in red, and people will say and claim "it's not there in red" to see.

Sorry, it is there in red, to see.
You are now yet again changing your argument. This was and still is very simple, but you are refusing to clearly and simply answer my questions, and I do not know why.

And yet again, I must point out that there are a few things you still haven't address:

And please tell me what you mean by "in man" or "in the flesh of man"? (fourth or fifth time asking)
...

1 John 3:8a according to the ESV: "Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil
1 John 3:8a according to the KJV: "He that committeth sin is of the the devil"
1 John 3:8a according to smaller: "Sin is of the devil"

You don't consider what the Bible says and what you say it says to be different in meaning and intent?
...

You stated: "Satan is IN the flesh of man,according to the Word of God." The claim that Satan is "in the flesh of man" (whatever that means), implies that Satan is in the flesh of all men and women who have ever existed or will exist. What evidence from Scripture do you have? How is it that Satan, a single, created being, can accomplish this?
 

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This is not what has happened. Now you are clearly changing your argument.
I changed nothing free.

Anyone can go back and easily see that I have asked you to prove your statement "Satan is IN the flesh of man,according to the Word of God."
And cited MANY scriptures showing this to be the case. Including, first and foremost, at the top of the list, this one:

Mark 4:15
And these are they by the way side, where the word is sown; but when they have heard, Satan cometh immediately, and taketh away the word that was sown in their hearts.

Nope. You made a truth claim so the burden of proof is on you to prove it to be true.
And this one, essentially identical, from Paul:

2 Corinthians 12:7
And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure.

And these, every last one, backed up identically by Acts 26:18, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2, 1 John 3:8 and many many more, likewise.

So, not really sure what 'proof' it is you are seeking. I take these statements of scripture as facts.

It is fallacious to claim the other has the burden of proof to prove your claims false.
There is no burden of proof to prove.
And yet again, I must point out that there are a few things you still haven't address:

And please tell me what you mean by "in man" or "in the flesh of man"? (fourth or fifth time asking)
It is not my issue that you can't see the obvious free.

1 John 3:8a according to the ESV: "Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil
1 John 3:8a according to the KJV: "He that committeth sin is of the the devil"
1 John 3:8a according to smaller: "Sin is of the devil"
Now just hold on a minute pal. I cite the KJV and the KJV is just as legit as your preferred ESV.

Here is the KJV citing:

1 John 3:8
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.

Now you can make whatever claim you want to about the KJV, but what you can not claim is that the BOLD RED above, is a claim of mine.

And I've addressed this with you not only in this thread, but in prior "brief engagements" on this subject matter.

That scripture, beyond any doubt, LINKS sin to the devil. There is no avoiding this conclusion. IF by no other means, the sin of THEFT OF WORD from people's hearts, which is A SIN of THEFT by Satan "in/from" people's hearts. Mark 4:15.

You don't consider what the Bible says and what you say it says to be different in meaning and intent?
No, there is something else in play here free, and that would be you not caring to make the connection of sin to the devil when scriptures DO make that claim of fact.
 
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I changed nothing free.
You sure did. You had just posted:

"When I made a statement of fact, that Satan, the god of this world, the prince of the power of the air, the spirit of disobedience, blinds the minds of all unbelievers of the Gospel, and site the many scriptures that show this, it is pointless for you to say 'where is the proof.' The proof is via the citings themselves. Mark 4:15, Acts 26:18, Romans 11:8, 2 Cor. 3:14, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2 ALL show and prove the same matters."

But that is not what the argument was. I was quite clearly asking you for proof for your statement, "Satan is IN the flesh of man,according to the Word of God." That was first asked here: http://christianforums.net/Fellowship/index.php?threads/the-man-of-sin.66629/page-2#post-1245202

Those are two very different arguments.

And cited MANY scriptures showing this to be the case. Including, first and foremost, at the top of the list, this one:

Mark 4:15
And these are they by the way side, where the word is sown; but when they have heard, Satan cometh immediately, and taketh away the word that was sown in their hearts.
You have given none showing that to be the case. The main problem at this point is that you still have refused to say what you mean by Satan being "in the flesh of man." This should be a very simple task unless you don't know what you mean by it. Define what you mean without Scripture.

As I see it, Mark 4:15 proves your position to be false. Note that Satan comes--he is not already "in the flesh of man"--and he takes away the word that was sown--he doesn't stay. Satan and his minions can have influences and effects on people but that in no way whatsoever means that "Satan is in the flesh of man." Of course, you need to define that first, as I have asked many times now.

And this one, essentially identical, from Paul:

2 Corinthians 12:7
And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure.
As I said previously, there are several ways of understanding what this verse is saying. Without you providing an explanation of precisely what you think that verse is saying, it is pointless.

So, not really sure what 'proof' it is you are seeking. I take these statements of scripture as facts.
A lot of people take parts of Scripture as facts but they have no understanding of what those scriptures mean. You have not shown that you have any understanding of those passages. Simply posting verses without explaining what you think they mean is largely pointless.

There is no burden of proof to prove.
There most certainly is. If you make truth claims, they remain mere opinion until proof is given to support those claims.

Free said:
And yet again, I must point out that there are a few things you still haven't addressed:

And please tell me what you mean by "in man" or "in the flesh of man"? (fourth or fifth time asking)
It is not my issue that you can't see the obvious free.
It isn't a matter of seeing or not seeing. I am asking you what you mean for the sake of clarification. If you cannot simply define what you mean, then it means you don't even know what you mean.

Free said:
1 John 3:8a according to the ESV: "Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil
1 John 3:8a according to the KJV: "He that committeth sin is of the the devil"
1 John 3:8a according to smaller: "Sin is of the devil"
And I've addressed this with you not only in this thread, but in prior "brief engagements" on this subject matter.

That scripture, beyond any doubt, LINKS sin to the devil. There is no avoiding this conclusion. IF by no other means, the sin of THEFT OF WORD from people's hearts, which is A SIN of THEFT by Satan.
Simply repeating the same error doesn't mean you have addressed it. You are purposefully removing words from a verse--"he that committeth"--to make it say something other than what it plainly says. That is a huge error and one the Bible itself warns against.

No, there is something else in play here free, and that would be you not caring to make the connection of sin to the devil when scriptures DO make that claim of fact.
My point has never been about whether or not there is a connection of sin to the devil. My whole point has been that 1 John 3:8 says something other than what you are making it say.
 

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You sure did. You had just posted:"When I made a statement of fact, that Satan, the god of this world, the prince of the power of the air, the spirit of disobedience, blinds the minds of all unbelievers of the Gospel, and site the many scriptures that show this, it is pointless for you to say 'where is the proof.' The proof is via the citings themselves. Mark 4:15, Acts 26:18, Romans 11:8, 2 Cor. 3:14, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2 ALL show and prove the same matters."

But that is not what the argument was. I was quite clearly asking you for proof for your statement, "Satan is IN the flesh of man,according to the Word of God." That was first asked here: http://christianforums.net/Fellowship/index.php?threads/the-man-of-sin.66629/page-2#post-1245202

Those are two very different arguments.
No, there are not two different arguments.

The spirit of disobedience, the theft of Word from within the heart of man by Satan, the blinding by the god of this world of people's minds, the captivity of the power of darkness, which is Satan's power, all transpires IN MAN. Precisely what the 'scriptures' term "the flesh" body because that is WHERE this activity of the spiritual adversary takes place.

And you went so far as to claim a statement of me, where I cite the specific of 1 John 3:8 from the KJV, that being, quite specific, that "sin is of the devil."

Does the ESV have the same claim? NO. It has a different claim where the word "continuing" is added. I don't accept that as a legitimate sight. WHY? Because "sin" is a permanent dwelling IN the flesh. Romans 7:17-21. Continuing in sin or not continuing in sin does not and will not remove sin dwelling in the flesh. Therefore the ESV is faulted in this sight. Whether we "continue" in sin is irrelevant. No one made sin NOT dwell in their flesh to start with nor does "not continuing" in sin make a single person sinless NOR is the devil going to be "removed" from the equation of "sin" from 1 John 3:8.


You have given none showing that to be the case. The main problem at this point is that you still have refused to say what you mean by Satan being "in the flesh of man." This should be a very simple task unless you don't know what you mean by it. Define what you mean without Scripture.
Oh, you mean I haven't provided enough commentary pointing to the fact by now?

If you want a real life, real time example of sin operating in the flesh, look to Paul's real life, real time proof for himself from Romans 7:7-13. Anyone can "prove" in real life, real time, the internal operations of sin in their own MIND just as Paul did. And this operation of SIN is quite entirely DEMONIC.

Why? Because Satan 'resists' the Word, wherever that Word of Law is sown, just as Mark 4:15 proposes.

As I see it, Mark 4:15 proves your position to be false.
It's not MY position. I cite a scriptural fact, that where The Word is sown, Satan STEALS same from the heart. This is the same claim made by Acts 26:18, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2 and many others, similar.

It is you who doesn't see it.

Note that Satan comes--he is not already "in the flesh of man"--and he takes away the word that was sown--he doesn't stay.
ALL unbelievers are "blinded in mind" by the "god of this world" prior to salvation. This shows the spiritual captivity of ALL unbelievers IN mind (or heart or flesh or however we'd care to observe it.)

So, yes, the CAPTOR is already therein, HOLDING his captives, blinding them, and IS involved in every sin.

Satan and his minions can have influences and effects on people but that in no way whatsoever means that "Satan is in the flesh of man."
The above is NOT an external working nor is it an observable working of Satan nor is it a working that can be proven empirically or forensically.

Therefore it is a working of unseen "spiritual disobedience" exactly as the scriptures propose.
As I said previously, there are several ways of understanding what this verse is saying. Without you providing an explanation of precisely what you think that verse is saying, it is pointless.
And why you think the scriptures themselves don't speak adequately to the subject matter is another matter altogether. I understand that it's a bit uncomfortable for any sinner to face the fact that sin is demonic captivity, especially with believers, but that is the the truth of it.

So, every time we have those "internal temptation or evil thoughts," just remember their source is not necessarily "just you" from the perspectives of scripture. And THIS is what believers don't care to deal with. I might even say it is not them who is "uncomfortable."

Temptation IS in the flesh (Gal. 3:13-14) and it is internal and it IS of the tempter. And evil IS present with us. If you get the connection of evil present to the wicked one, you'll see it for what it is.

A lot of people take parts of Scripture as facts but they have no understanding of what those scriptures mean. You have not shown that you have any understanding of those passages.
Prove it. It is you trying to wipe the devil, Satan, the wicked one, the tempter, the thief, the blinder, the captor, the god of this world, the spirit of disobedience, OUT of the equations of scripture.

Thankfully what is in writing isn't changing.
Simply posting verses without explaining what you think they mean is largely pointless.
The burden of proof, to eliminate written facts, is on you my friend. Not me.
 

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Does the ESV have the same claim? NO. It has a different claim where the word "continuing" is added. I don't accept that as a legitimate sight. WHY? Because "sin" is a permanent dwelling IN the flesh. Romans 7:17-21. Continuing in sin or not continuing in sin does not and will not remove sin dwelling in the flesh. Therefore the ESV is faulted in this sight. Whether we "continue" in sin is irrelevant. No one made sin NOT dwell in their flesh to start with nor does "not continuing" in sin make a single person sinless NOR is the devil going to be "removed" from the equation of "sin" from 1 John 3:8.
The tense in the Greek means that the ESV rendering of 1 John 3:8 is correct. It is about someone who continues to purposely live a sinful lifestyle. Not that it matters because any version, including the KJV, shows that you are purposely misusing that verse.

1 John 3:8a according to the ESV: "8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil"
1 John 3:8a according the KJV: "8 He that committeth sin is of the devil"
1 John 3:8a according to smaller: "8 Sin is of the devil"

Whether or not your overall point is correct is irrelevant to the fact that you are purposely removing words from this verse to make it say something other than it does.

Prove it. It is you trying to wipe the devil, Satan, the wicked one, the tempter, the thief, the blinder, the captor, the god of this world, the spirit of disobedience, OUT of the equations of scripture.
I have never done any such thing.

I am going to drop this discussion. You have now changed three of your arguments, you refuse to provide a simple definition of what you mean by Satan being "in the flesh of man," you purposely misuse Scripture, and you purposely misrepresent my position.
 

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The tense in the Greek means that the ESV rendering
In the ESV rendering, yes. But there are a couple of simple observations of scriptural reality. First being, none of us are "sinless." No one leads a "sinless" life.

Secondly, the KJV very clearly says sin is of the devil. Not continuing in sin. So it's not my bad to see the obvious connection of sin to the devil, as stated by the KJV, not as 'continuing' but by being a "sinner" which conclusion no one truthfully avoids. I'd call the ESV a statement of a translator who does not see the reality of being a "sinner" present tense. And rather seeing "sin" as only an external action.

Pointed also to the fact that Paul shows sin dwelling in his flesh. Romans 7:17-20. This is not an "in and out" rotation of dwelling. But a permanent dwelling of sin in his own flesh, thereby affirming sin as a fact for all.

You have addressed none of the above.

of 1 John 3:8 is correct. It is about someone who continues to purposely live a sinful lifestyle. Not that it matters because any version, including the KJV, shows that you are purposely misusing that verse.
In claiming "continuing" it appears you may think that when we are not "actively sinning" we are then not sinners, but sinless. I think that conclusion is preposterous.
according to smaller: "8 Sin is of the devil"
That is a direct statement of that scripture, like it or not. It is not 'according to smaller' but according to John the Apostle.
Whether or not your overall point is correct is irrelevant to the fact that you are purposely removing words from this verse to make it say something other than it does.
We are not sinless by not continuing in sin, IF this is what you are proposing from the ESV.

I am going to drop this discussion. You have now changed three of your arguments, you refuse to provide a simple definition of what you mean by Satan being "in the flesh of man," you purposely misuse Scripture, and you purposely misrepresent my position.
I have no idea why you resist sin being of the devil quite frankly, because it is.
 

turnorburn

Member
Joined
Nov 21, 2007
Messages
8,714
Has anyone figured out who the man of sin is yet?
What do the scriptures say about him?

II Thessalonians 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.

There is only one other place in scripture that describes him..

John 17:12 While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.

Find a person with the attributes of Judas and you'll have your man..
 
Joined
Oct 20, 2016
Messages
934
Whoever he may be, he will pass the eye-test and since we can not know the heart of another man, it will take the Wisdom of God granted by the Holy Spirit to detect him. The gift of Discernment.
 

turnorburn

Member
Joined
Nov 21, 2007
Messages
8,714
Whoever he may be, he will pass the eye-test and since we can not know the heart of another man, it will take the Wisdom of God granted by the Holy Spirit to detect him. The gift of Discernment.
He's here he's been here for quite some time hiding in plain sight..
 

Sinthesis

Member
Joined
Feb 23, 2009
Messages
5,188
Christian
Yes
As a figure of speech, the 'Son of Perdition' inherits all the riches of Perdition.
 

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