Stormcrow
Member
For years, we've all read this short little verse:
And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison, Revelation 20:7 (KJV)
And thought nothing of it. Seems pretty simple and straightforward, huh?
Maybe not. While perusing one of my literal translations, I came across this:
And whenever are ended the thousand years will be released Satan out of the prison of him,
WHAT?!?!?
See the change from the King James to the literal???
When >> Whenever!
Anybody else see how this changes the meaning of the sentence?
When is emphatic. It emphatically declares that when the 1,000 years are over, Satan will be freed. This certainly implies that the 1,000 years is, in fact, a full 1,000 year span of time!
But when the word whenever is used, things become a little less emphatic; a little less certain!
Now, just to see how this works, replace the word "when" with the word "whenever" in the NASB version:
Whenever the thousand years are completed, Satan will be released from his prison, Revelation 20:7 (NASB)
Young's Literal expresses this uncertainty this way:
And when the thousand years may be finished, the Adversary shall be loosed out of his prison, Revelation 20:7 (YLT)
Let's put these words in a different context:
When the next hour passes, we'll have dinner. (This is like saying, "we'll have dinner in an hour.")
Whenever the next hour passes, we'll have dinner. (This is like saying, "we'll have dinner after the 5 o'clock hour.")
The first suggests a full hour must pass before dinner is ready, but the second suggests dinner could be ready in 5 minutes!
In other words, when the word "when" is used in reference to a thousand years passing, it suggests a full thousand years. But when the word "whenever" is used in reference to a thousand years passing, that same thousand years may have been close to completion at the time John wrote Revelation!
This is backed up by Strong's:
Greek Strong's Number: 3752
Greek Word:ὅταν
Transliteration:hotan
Root: from <G3753> and <G302>
Cross Reference:
Part of Speech: particle
Vine's Words: None
Usage Notes:
English Words used in KJV:
when 115
as soon as 2
as long as 1
that 1
whensoever 1
while 1
till + <G1508> 1
[Total Count: 122]
from <G3753> (hote) and <G302> (an); whenever (implying hypothesis or more or less uncertainty); also causative (conjecture) inasmuch as :- as long (soon) as, that, + till, when (-soever), while.
Don't shoot me. I'm just the messenger.
So have we been victimized by a bad interpretation of the Greek word "hotan?"
Just thought I'd throw that out there.
Oh, and one more thing about the 1,000 years: Hitler's Third Reich was supposed to last 1,000 years. It lasted 12 (1933 - 1945).
"Whenever the thousand years end." For Hitler's Germany, the thousand years ended after 12.
Is this what John really means: that the 1,000 years may not reach the full length of 1,000 years? And if so, when did they end?
And when the thousand years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison, Revelation 20:7 (KJV)
And thought nothing of it. Seems pretty simple and straightforward, huh?
Maybe not. While perusing one of my literal translations, I came across this:
And whenever are ended the thousand years will be released Satan out of the prison of him,
WHAT?!?!?
See the change from the King James to the literal???
When >> Whenever!
Anybody else see how this changes the meaning of the sentence?
When is emphatic. It emphatically declares that when the 1,000 years are over, Satan will be freed. This certainly implies that the 1,000 years is, in fact, a full 1,000 year span of time!
But when the word whenever is used, things become a little less emphatic; a little less certain!
Now, just to see how this works, replace the word "when" with the word "whenever" in the NASB version:
Whenever the thousand years are completed, Satan will be released from his prison, Revelation 20:7 (NASB)
Young's Literal expresses this uncertainty this way:
And when the thousand years may be finished, the Adversary shall be loosed out of his prison, Revelation 20:7 (YLT)
Let's put these words in a different context:
When the next hour passes, we'll have dinner. (This is like saying, "we'll have dinner in an hour.")
Whenever the next hour passes, we'll have dinner. (This is like saying, "we'll have dinner after the 5 o'clock hour.")
The first suggests a full hour must pass before dinner is ready, but the second suggests dinner could be ready in 5 minutes!
In other words, when the word "when" is used in reference to a thousand years passing, it suggests a full thousand years. But when the word "whenever" is used in reference to a thousand years passing, that same thousand years may have been close to completion at the time John wrote Revelation!
This is backed up by Strong's:
Greek Strong's Number: 3752
Greek Word:ὅταν
Transliteration:hotan
Root: from <G3753> and <G302>
Cross Reference:
Part of Speech: particle
Vine's Words: None
Usage Notes:
English Words used in KJV:
when 115
as soon as 2
as long as 1
that 1
whensoever 1
while 1
till + <G1508> 1
[Total Count: 122]
from <G3753> (hote) and <G302> (an); whenever (implying hypothesis or more or less uncertainty); also causative (conjecture) inasmuch as :- as long (soon) as, that, + till, when (-soever), while.
Don't shoot me. I'm just the messenger.
So have we been victimized by a bad interpretation of the Greek word "hotan?"
Just thought I'd throw that out there.
Oh, and one more thing about the 1,000 years: Hitler's Third Reich was supposed to last 1,000 years. It lasted 12 (1933 - 1945).
"Whenever the thousand years end." For Hitler's Germany, the thousand years ended after 12.
Is this what John really means: that the 1,000 years may not reach the full length of 1,000 years? And if so, when did they end?
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