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What's Wrong With The NIV Bible ?

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Oats

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Beat me to the punch. Here is a quote from Drew (hope he doesn't mind :) ):

"In any event, I think the proper way to discuss this issue is to address technical matters of translation and not make arguments how the company that sells the NIV also sells the Satanic Bible. I suspect that the paper used in many Bible translations comes from the same paper company who sells to pornographers. But that is hardly an argument to impugn those Bible translations. "

Also from the old thread I linked to earlier.
that's a danger

....but i digress, seeing as you guys wont give me a platform anyhow
 

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I am not so harsh on it anymore, it has it's place. I just like to keep the board interesting.
Keeping the board interesting is one thing, but churches split over this stuff and other denominations get demonized for not reading the KJV. This is no small matter.
 

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Keeping the board interesting is one thing, but churches split over this stuff and other denominations get demonized for not reading the KJV. This is no small matter.
Nevermind. In my haste to get going and get to bed before my wife has to raise her voice, I didn't think this through until after I logged off. Most everything on this board churches split over or demonize other denominations for doing a certain thing or not doing a certain thing a certain way.

My apologies Lewis. This one particular topic rubs me the wrong way like almost nothing else.
 

Lewis

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Nevermind. In my haste to get going and get to bed before my wife has to raise her voice, I didn't think this through until after I logged off. Most everything on this board churches split over or demonize other denominations for doing a certain thing or not doing a certain thing a certain way.

My apologies Lewis. This one particular topic rubs me the wrong way like almost nothing else.
Okay
 

AKJVReader

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Try Answering These From Your NIV (This should be interesting)

Using the New International Version Bible, answer the following questions to this NIV quiz. Do not rely on your memory. As the Bible is the final authority, you must take the answer from the Bible verse (not from footnotes but from the text).

  1. Fill in the missing words in Matthew 5:44. "Love your enemies,__________ them that curse you, ______________ to them that hate you, and pray for them that __________ and persecute you."
  2. According to Matthew 17:21, what two things are required to cast out this type of demon?
  3. According to Matthew 18:11, why did Jesus come to earth?
  4. According to Matthew 27:2, what was Pilate's first name?
  5. In Matthew 27:35, when the wicked soldiers parted His garments, they were fulfilling the words of the prophet. Copy what the prophet said in Matthew 27:35 from the NIV.
  6. In Mark 3:15, Jesus gave the apostles power to cast out demons and to: ____________
  7. According to Mark 7:16, what does a man need to be able to hear?
  8. According to Luke 7:28, what was John? (teacher, prophet, carpenter, etc.). What is his title or last name?
  9. In Luke 9:55, what did the disciples not know?
  10. In Luke 9:56, what did the Son of man not come to do? According to this verse, what did He come to do?
  11. In Luke 22:14, how many apostles were with Jesus?
  12. According to Luke 23:38, in what three languages was the superscription written?
  13. In Luke 24:42, what did they give Jesus to eat with His fish?
  14. John 3:13 is a very important verse, proving the deity of Christ. According to this verse (as Jesus spoke), where is the Son of man?
  15. What happened each year as told in John 5:4?
  16. In John 7:50, what time of day did Nicodemus come to Jesus?
  17. In Acts 8:37, what is the one requirement for baptism?
  18. What did Saul ask Jesus in Acts 9:6?
  19. Write the name of the man mentioned in Acts 15:34.
  20. Study Acts 24:6-8. What would the Jew have done with Paul? What was the chief captain's name? What did the chief captain command?
  21. Copy Romans 16:24 word for word from the NIV.
  22. First Timothy 3:16 is perhaps the greatest verse in the New Testament concerning the deity of Christ. In this verse, who was manifested in the flesh?
  23. In the second part of First Peter 4:14, how do [they] speak of Christ? And, what do we Christians do?
  24. Who are the three Persons of the Trinity in First John 5:7?
  25. Revelation 1:11 is another very important verse that proves the deity of Christ. In the first part of this verse Jesus said, "I am the A______________ and O___________, the _________ and the _______:"
Conclusion: Little space is provided for your answers, but it's much more than needed. If you followed the instructions above, you not only failed the test, you receive a big goose egg.

(Ed. These are all missing in the NIV.) So now what do you think of your "accurate, easy to understand, up to date Bible"?
If you would like to improve your score, and in fact score 100%, you can take this test using the Authorized (King James) Bible.

From:
Try answering these questions from your NIV.
 
F

felix

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I did much research myself on this area.. I am not KJV only either because it is just a translation of the Scriptures and I had found myself some errors in KJV.

What really matters is not the translation, but the source manuscript used for translation. I am not concentrating more on OT because we have Septuagint translated into Greek 3 centuries before Christ... so technically, no one can change any words and we have two sources to verify which is older that Christianity itself.

However, NT has a very different story. Manuscripts are widely divided into 5.
Wiki: Categories_of_New_Testament_manuscripts
  • Alexandrian
  • Egyptian
  • Eclectic
  • Western
  • Byzantine
KJV is not translated from any of these manuscripts but Textus Receptus (or received text) what has been used and found in churches of that time and closely related to Byzantine manuscripts.

However, NIV and a host of modern translations are from Alexandrian manuscripts and are much older than Textus Receptus.

The real problem is finding out which manuscript is the actual fact and truth. One way that I used to find is another 2 supporting verses.

By the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established:
Matt 18:16 "But if he will not hear, take with you one or two more, that 'by the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.'
2Cor 13:1 This [will be] the third [time] I am coming to you. "By the mouth of two or three witnesses every word shall be established."
1Tim 5:19 Do not receive an accusation against an elder except from two or three witnesses.

Scripture itself helps us how to find the truth: By the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established (this again must must be established by three witness which I had showed above)

So, any contradicting verse in any translation must be supported by atleast two verses.

Comma Johanneum (1 John 5:7) is a well known example. In order to prove whether 1 John 5:7 really exists or not, we need to take the whole context, understand them properly and then find two other verses that prove the verse.

So, what do we need to prove if 1 John 5:7 is true. [For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one], We must prove Father, Word (or the Son). Holy Spirit bear witness - for who/what? Jesus Christ (refer verse 6).

  1. Father bears witness of Son: John 8:18
  2. Son bears witness of Himself: John 8:14,18
  3. Spirit bears witness of Son: 1John 5:6
Jesus Christ referring as 'Our witness' in John 3:11.

Next, we need to prove Father, Word, Holy Spirit are one.
  1. Father is the Son: Isa 9:6
  2. Son is the Holy Spirit: Acts 20:28
  3. Holy Spirit is the Father: John 4:24
So, it's done.. By three witness verses according to the Scriptures, I can say, '1 John 5:7' must exist in original scripture. Similarly we must do for all contracting verses in manuscripts.
 
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Try Answering These From Your NIV (This should be interesting)

Using the New International Version Bible, answer the following questions to this NIV quiz. Do not rely on your memory. As the Bible is the final authority, you must take the answer from the Bible verse (not from footnotes but from the text).

  1. Fill in the missing words in Matthew 5:44. "Love your enemies,__________ them that curse you, ______________ to them that hate you, and pray for them that __________ and persecute you."
  2. According to Matthew 17:21, what two things are required to cast out this type of demon?
  3. According to Matthew 18:11, why did Jesus come to earth?
  4. According to Matthew 27:2, what was Pilate's first name?
  5. In Matthew 27:35, when the wicked soldiers parted His garments, they were fulfilling the words of the prophet. Copy what the prophet said in Matthew 27:35 from the NIV.
  6. In Mark 3:15, Jesus gave the apostles power to cast out demons and to: ____________
  7. According to Mark 7:16, what does a man need to be able to hear?
  8. According to Luke 7:28, what was John? (teacher, prophet, carpenter, etc.). What is his title or last name?
  9. In Luke 9:55, what did the disciples not know?
  10. In Luke 9:56, what did the Son of man not come to do? According to this verse, what did He come to do?
  11. In Luke 22:14, how many apostles were with Jesus?
  12. According to Luke 23:38, in what three languages was the superscription written?
  13. In Luke 24:42, what did they give Jesus to eat with His fish?
  14. John 3:13 is a very important verse, proving the deity of Christ. According to this verse (as Jesus spoke), where is the Son of man?
  15. What happened each year as told in John 5:4?
  16. In John 7:50, what time of day did Nicodemus come to Jesus?
  17. In Acts 8:37, what is the one requirement for baptism?
  18. What did Saul ask Jesus in Acts 9:6?
  19. Write the name of the man mentioned in Acts 15:34.
  20. Study Acts 24:6-8. What would the Jew have done with Paul? What was the chief captain's name? What did the chief captain command?
  21. Copy Romans 16:24 word for word from the NIV.
  22. First Timothy 3:16 is perhaps the greatest verse in the New Testament concerning the deity of Christ. In this verse, who was manifested in the flesh?
  23. In the second part of First Peter 4:14, how do [they] speak of Christ? And, what do we Christians do?
  24. Who are the three Persons of the Trinity in First John 5:7?
  25. Revelation 1:11 is another very important verse that proves the deity of Christ. In the first part of this verse Jesus said, "I am the A______________ and O___________, the _________ and the _______:"
Conclusion: Little space is provided for your answers, but it's much more than needed. If you followed the instructions above, you not only failed the test, you receive a big goose egg.

(Ed. These are all missing in the NIV.) So now what do you think of your "accurate, easy to understand, up to date Bible"?
If you would like to improve your score, and in fact score 100%, you can take this test using the Authorized (King James) Bible.

From:
Try answering these questions from your NIV.
And of course this whole post begs the question by presuming that those verses should be in the KJV in the first place.
 

AKJVReader

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I am not KJV only either because it is just a translation of the Scriptures and I had found myself some errors in KJV.
Please tell me the errors in the Authorized KJV?

However, NIV and a host of modern translations are from Alexandrian manuscripts and are much older than Textus Receptus.
But you go into the reasoning that the older manuscripts are better than than the newer ones when the Apostle Paul tells us that there were many people corrupting the word of God in his day!

2 Corinthians 2:
17 For we are not as many, which corrupt the word of God: but as of sincerity, but as of God, in the sight of God speak we in Christ.

The real problem is finding out which manuscript is the actual fact and truth.
This chart will help you: http://www.born2serve.org/images/kjvchartbig.gif
 
F

felix

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Please tell me the errors in the Authorized KJV?
#1
  • Father can give life(John 5:21),
  • Son can give life(John 5:21)
  • Holy Spirit can give life (John 6:63)
  • but NOT the devil as in KJV (Rev 13:15)
#2, The other most common and well known error is the translation of Easter in KJV (Acts 12:4) which must be translated as Passover.

I am not disputing the fact that it is a good translation. It still has some translation errors, after all it is just a translation of the Holy Scriptures.

But you go into the reasoning that the older manuscripts are better than than the newer ones when the Apostle Paul tells us that there were many people corrupting the word of God in his day!

2 Corinthians 2:
17 For we are not as many, which corrupt the word of God: but as of sincerity, but as of God, in the sight of God speak we in Christ.
I never reasoned that older manuscript is better. But I reasoned by the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established as per the Scriptures. No matter it is old or new, if it is truly inspired by God, it will have 2 other witness verses supporting it, which makes the Scriptures virtually incorruptible. This is why I provided an example of how I reasoned and I urge everyone to do the same way.

But they aren't manuscripts, they are called 'Textus Receptus' meaning received text - the texts what were being currently used/available in Churches. If you take Comma Johanneum as an example, it started appearing in manuscript margins during the 10-11th Century and on main texts in 15th/16th Century. It was also not quoted by any of the church fathers when fighting against heresies like non-trinitarians during the 1st/2nd Century. This urges us to truly find the real truth. I also believe there is a reason why it started appearing in margins - it could be that they found their own manuscript to be erred and they tried to fix it by writing in margins after referring some other copies that existing during their day. But if we are to truly find the true uncorrupted scripture verses, we must rely only on scriptures itself rather than history.
 
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AKJVReader

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  • Father can give life (John 5:21),
  • Son can give life (John 5:21)
  • Holy Spirit can give life (John 6:63)
  • but NOT the devil as in KJV (Rev 13:15)

Revelation 13:
15 And he had power to give life unto the image of the beast, that the image of the beast should both speak, and cause that as many as would not worship the image of the beast should be killed.

Life is given to "the image of the beast" this is not to be compared to the life that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit gives.

#2, The other most common and well known error is the translation of Easter in KJV (Acts 12:4) which must be translated as Passover.


ANSWER:
No, "pascha" is properly translated "Easter" in Acts 12:4 as the following explanation will show.

EXPLANATION: The Greek word which is translated "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is the word "pascha". This word appears twenty-nine times in the New Testament. Twenty-eight of those times the word is rendered "Passover" in reference to the night when the Lord passed over Egypt and killed all the firstborn of Egypt (Exodus 12:12), thus setting Israel free from four hundred years of bondage.
The many opponents to the concept of having a perfect Bible have made much of this translation of "pascha".
Coming to the word "Easter" in God's Authorized Bible, they seize upon it imagining that they have found proof that the Bible is not perfect. Fortunately for lovers of the word of God, they are wrong. Easter, as we know it, comes from the ancient pagan festival of Astarte. Also known as Ishtar (pronounced "Easter"). This festival has always been held late in the month of April. It was, in its original form, a celebration of the earth "regenerating" itself after the winter season. The festival involved a celebration of reproduction. For this reason the common symbols of Easter festivities were the rabbit (the same symbol as "Playboy" magazine), and the egg. Both are known for their reproductive abilities. At the center of attention was Astarte, the female deity. She is known in the Bible as the "queen of heaven" (Jeremiah 7:18; 44:17-25). She is the mother of Tammuz (Ezekiel 8:14) who was also her husband! These perverted rituals would take place at sunrise on Easter morning (Ezekiel 8:13-16). From the references in Jeremiah and Ezekiel, we can see that the true Easter has never had any association with Jesus Christ.

Problem: Even though the Jewish passover was held in mid April (the fourteenth) and the pagan festival Easter was held later the same month, how do we know that Herod was referring to Easter in Acts 12:4 and not the Jewish passover? If he was referring to the passover, the translation of "pascha" as "Easter" is incorrect. If he was indeed referring to the pagan holyday (holiday) Easter, then the King James Bible (1611) must truly be the very word and words of God for it is the only Bible in print today which has the correct reading.

To unravel the confusion concerning "Easter" in verse 4, we must consult our FINAL authority, THE BIBLE. The key which unlocks the puzzle is found not in verse 4, but in verse 3. (Then were the days of unleavened bread... ") To secure the answer that we seek, we must find the relationship of the passover to the days of unleavened bread. We must keep in mind that Peter was arrested during the "days of unleavened bread" (Acts 12:3).

Read more:
The Answer Book -by Samuel C. Gipp, Th.D.

 

AKJVReader

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Ok back to topic.

The NIV perverts the deity of Jesus Christ!

I TIMOTHY 3:16: The clearest verse in the Bible proclaiming that Jesus Christ was God. The King James Bible (KJB) reads, "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: GOD WAS MANIFEST IN THE FLESH. . ." The King James says, plainly, "GOD was manifest in the flesh". The NIV reads, "HE appeared in a body". The NIV "twists" "GOD" to "HE". "HE appeared in a body"? So What? Everyone has "appeared in a body"! "He" is a pronoun that refers to a noun or antecedent. There is no antecedent in the context! The statement does NOT make sense! The NIV subtilty (see Genesis 3:1) perverts I Timothy 3:16 into utter nonsense!
PHILIPPIANS 2:6: The KJB again, clearly declares the deity of Jesus Christ: "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery TO BE EQUAL WITH GOD" The NIV reads, "Who, being in very nature God, DID NOT CONSIDER EQUALITY WITH GOD something to be grasped,". The NIV again subtitly perverts the deity of Jesus Christ!

The NIV perverts the virgin birth!
<center> </center> LUKE 2:33: The King James Bible reads, "And JOSEPH and his mother marvelled at those things which were spoken of him." The NIV reads, "The CHILD'S FATHER and mother marveled at what was said about him." The "CHILD'S FATHER"? Was Joseph Jesus's father? Not if you believe the virgin birth! Not if you believe John 3:16, that Jesus Christ was the Son of God! A subtil, "perversion" of the virgin birth. See also Luke 2:43.

The NIV removes the blood of Jesus Christ!
<center> </center> COLOSSIANS 1:14: The KJB reads, "In whom we have redemption THROUGH HIS BLOOD, even the forgiveness of sins:" The NIV reads, "In whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins." The NIV rips out the precious words "THROUGH HIS BLOOD"! Friend, redemption is ONLY "THROUGH HIS BLOOD".Hebrews 9:22, reads, ". . . without shedding of BLOOD is no remission." That old song says, "What can wash away my sins, NOTHING BUT THE BLOOD OF JESUS!"

The NIV perverts John 3:16 into a LIE!
<center> </center> JOHN 3:16: The NIV reads, "For God so loved the world that he gave his ONE AND ONLY SON, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life" Jesus was NOT "the one and only son" - Adam is called the "son of God" in Luke 3:38, there are "sons of God" in Job 1:6 and Christians are called "sons of God" in Phil 2:15, I John 3:2- but Jesus was the "ONLY BEGOTTEN SON"! By removing the critical word "BEGOTTEN" - The NIV perverts John 3:16 into a LIE! The NIV does the same in John 1:14, 1:18, and 3:18.

The NIV removes and perverts the place of hell!

<center> </center> The word "hell" occurs 31 times in the Old Testament in the King James Bible. In the Old Testament of the NIV it occurs - ZERO! The word "hell" is NOT in the Old Testament of the NIV!
And what do they do with "hell"? Take PSALM 9:17 for example: The King James reads, "The wicked shall be turned into HELL. . ." The NIV, reads, "The wicked return to the GRAVE. . ." We ALL "return to the GRAVE"! By removing "hell" the NIV perverts Psalm 9:17 into nonsense!
In the New Testament the NIV zaps out "hell" 9 times. And what "clearer" "easier to understand" word does the NIV "update" hell with? Five times they use - HADES! (Matt 16:18, Rev 1:18, 6:8, 20:13,14)What "common person" understands HADES? Everybody knows what HELL is! Do you know what HADES is? Hades is not always a place of torment or terror. The Assyrian Hades is an abode of blessedness with silver skies called "Happy Fields". In the satanic New Age Movement, Hades is an intermediate state of purification! Webster's New Collegiate Dictionary defines HADES: "the underground abode of the dead in Greek MYTHOLOGY". The NIV perverts your Bible into MYTHOLOGY!

The NIV completely "TAKETH AWAY" 17 verses!
Wonderful and precious verses like:
MATTHEW 18:11
: "For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost.".
ACTS 8:37: "And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."

The NIV PERversion completely "TAKETH AWAY" Matthew 17:21, 18:11, 23:14, Mark 7:16, 9:44, 9:46, 11:26, 15:28, Luke 17:36, 23:17, John 5:4, Acts 8:37, 15:34, 24:7, 28:28, Romans 16:24 and 1 John 5:7!

After Mark 16:8 the NIV says, "The most reliable early manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9-20." ZAP-There goes another 12 verses! And by the way, that is absolutely untrue! The book, The Last Twelve Verses of the Gospel of Mark, by Dean Burgon contains over 400 pages of documented evidence for Mark 16:9-20, that has never been refuted, nor ever will!
After John 7:52, the NIV, reads, "The earliest and most reliable manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have John 7:53-8:11" ZAP-There goes another 12 verses!
Matt. 12:47, 21:44, Luke 22:43 and 22:44 are all removed in the footnotes!
That's 45 complete verses the NIV removes from the text or in the footnotes!

Read more:
NIV Exposed!


 
F

felix

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AKJVReader,

I don't disagree that NIV is a corrupted, but I also don't agree KJV is a perfect translation. Scripture is always pure but translations may go bad.

#1, devil cannot give life. The correct translation of (G4151 πνεῦμα pneuma) is 'spirit' not 'life'.
#2, Acts 12:3 does not read 'Then the days ..' in original text. YLT and Greek Interlinear reads, 'and they were the days..'. How did you arrive at (G3957 πάσχα pascha) even refers Easter? πάσχα means Passover. period. FYI, scripture is not written in English.
 

westtexas

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In the New Testament the NIV zaps out "hell" 9 times. And what "clearer" "easier to understand" word does the NIV "update" hell with? Five times they use - HADES! (Matt 16:18, Rev 1:18, 6:8, 20:13,14)What "common person" understands HADES? Everybody knows what HELL is!
:lol I'm not sure who Terry Watkins, the author of this article that you quote here is. BUT WHAT AN IGNORANT STATEMENT THIS IS!!!:lol There wouldn't be the confusion today that there is if translators had stuck with the originals of Hades and Sheoul. Shame on that nasty NIV for using a literal word!!!!!

I appreciate the laugh. I may have to read all the article now.
Westtexas
 

jasoncran

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lol, at akjv i didnt see that. i kinda grew up populost shows that had the idea of hades at times.

that is no big deal to me what hades, sharon and the fairy that had to be paid so that the dead cross the river styx.

has anyone see seen helen of troy or the troy,. take note of the funeral pyres and what the coins are and placement and why is stated.
 

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:lol I'm not sure who Terry Watkins, the author of this article that you quote here is. BUT WHAT AN IGNORANT STATEMENT THIS IS!!!:lol There wouldn't be the confusion today that there is if translators had stuck with the originals of Hades and Sheoul. Shame on that nasty NIV for using a literal word!!!!!

I appreciate the laugh. I may have to read all the article now.
Westtexas
Haha....I had not noticed that. According to an online KJV lexicon, the Greek use of Hades appears 11 times, not once properly translated as Hades in the English, but rather Hell. Hell is not Hades, or rather gehenna is not hades; two different words for two different places/concepts. Not noting the difference causes much confusion.

http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/hades.html
 

Rageprophet

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Aw Man am I gonna catch flack for using the NLT :grumpy

Translation imo don't make much of a diffrence so long as you have the Holy Spirit or Ghost ... God as long as you have God in you he will translate for you and if you need to really hammer out some sort of doctrine you should be in the original text anyway.

do a couple of these :pray before you do this :study and you should be ok. Go Jesus :thumbsup
 

AKJVReader

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To begin, let’s look at the important word “hellâ€. Nearly every unbeliever and false religion is quick to point out that “hell†in the Bible only refers to the grave. Though they are correct that the word “hell†most often comes from the Hebrew “Sheol†or the Greek “Hadesâ€, they error in their assumption that “hell†refers to the grave alone. The Old Testament Saints only knew hell as “the realm of the deadâ€. “Sheol†did not mean a literal grave or a particular sepulcher but rather referred to the unseen world. The grave was simply a FIGURE OF DEATH. So the word was used in a broad sense. It sometimes implies the grave and yet at other times implies hell damnation. In Psalm 9:17 we read that “The wicked shall be turned into hell, and all the nations that forget Godâ€. This scripture clearly cannot refer to the grave alone because even the righteous go to the grave! Surely God is stating that judgment is awaiting those who die in their sins, never having received the Lord Jesus Christ as their personal Savior.


“Hades†is the New Testament Greek word For “Sheolâ€. Again, the word “Hades†has different meanings. We must let the Scripture guide our thoughts. Jesus cleared up any Old Testament misunderstandings that “hell†was ONLY a grave. In Matthew 5:22, Jesus spoke of those being in danger of “HELL FIREâ€. Jesus referred to hell as being a place of: damnation, fire, destruction, torments, weeping, wailing and nashing of teeth. A place “Where THEIR WORM DIETH NOT, AND THE FIRE IS NOT QUENCHED†(Mark 9:44). So “Hades†was not always a mere Grave. Acts 2:31 states, "He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption." In Acts 2:31, "Hell" refers to "Hades." Hell (Greek, "Hades") is often confusing to people because it seems to only imply a place of torment and fire. However, as we learn from the true account of Luke 16, Hades had TWO compartments: Paradise and Torment. Lazarus went to the Paradise side; but, the rich man went to the Torment side. The use of the word "Hell" in Acts 2:31 refers to the Paradise side of Hades. On the cross, Jesus said to the repentant thief, “...TODAY shalt thou be with me in paradiseâ€. Jesus did not go to hell with the damned! He did not suffer after death, but went immediately to be “in paradise†(Luke 23:43). Jesus surrendered His Spirit to the Father, “Father, INTO THY HANDS I COMMEND MY SPIRIT†(Luke 23:46).

Read more:
Did Jesus Go To hell? -by David J. Stewart
 
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felix

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To begin, let’s look at the important word “hellâ€. Nearly every unbeliever and false religion is quick to point out that “hell†in the Bible only refers to the grave. Though they are correct that the word “hell†most often comes from the Hebrew “Sheol†or the Greek “Hadesâ€, they error in their assumption that “hell†refers to the grave alone. The Old Testament Saints only knew hell as “the realm of the deadâ€. “Sheol†did not mean a literal grave or a particular sepulcher but rather referred to the unseen world. The grave was simply a FIGURE OF DEATH. So the word was used in a broad sense. It sometimes implies the grave and yet at other times implies hell damnation. In Psalm 9:17 we read that “The wicked shall be turned into hell, and all the nations that forget Godâ€. This scripture clearly cannot refer to the grave alone because even the righteous go to the grave! Surely God is stating that judgment is awaiting those who die in their sins, never having received the Lord Jesus Christ as their personal Savior.


“Hades†is the New Testament Greek word For “Sheolâ€. Again, the word “Hades†has different meanings. We must let the Scripture guide our thoughts. Jesus cleared up any Old Testament misunderstandings that “hell†was ONLY a grave. In Matthew 5:22, Jesus spoke of those being in danger of “HELL FIREâ€. Jesus referred to hell as being a place of: damnation, fire, destruction, torments, weeping, wailing and nashing of teeth. A place “Where THEIR WORM DIETH NOT, AND THE FIRE IS NOT QUENCHED†(Mark 9:44). So “Hades†was not always a mere Grave. Acts 2:31 states, "He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption." In Acts 2:31, "Hell" refers to "Hades." Hell (Greek, "Hades") is often confusing to people because it seems to only imply a place of torment and fire. However, as we learn from the true account of Luke 16, Hades had TWO compartments: Paradise and Torment. Lazarus went to the Paradise side; but, the rich man went to the Torment side. The use of the word "Hell" in Acts 2:31 refers to the Paradise side of Hades. On the cross, Jesus said to the repentant thief, “...TODAY shalt thou be with me in paradiseâ€. Jesus did not go to hell with the damned! He did not suffer after death, but went immediately to be “in paradise†(Luke 23:43). Jesus surrendered His Spirit to the Father, “Father, INTO THY HANDS I COMMEND MY SPIRIT†(Luke 23:46).

Read more:
Did Jesus Go To hell? -by David J. Stewart
Hell is a English word for (G1067 γέεννα gehenna [gheh'-en-nah]). Hades is a Greek word transliterated into English (G86 ᾅδης hades).

Hades:
Some translations were unable to determine what exactly is it in English for hades, hence used the same word (G86 ᾅδης hades). To be more clear, Christ's soul was not left in hades (Acts 2:31). However, from Matt 10:28, we understand the soul is destroyed in geenna. So, hades and geenna are two different places. Christ never went to geenna but hades. In 1 Cor 15:55, Christ was victorious over hades which is nothing but the fulfillment of prophecy in Hos 13:14 where it is called (H7585 שְׁאוֹל שְׁאוֹל sh'owl).
  • All who die goes to Sheol (Eccl 9:10)
  • Sheol is a place of no return (Job 7:9)
Gehenna:
Jer 7:31-32 "And they have built the high places of Tophet, which [is] in the Valley of the Son of Hinnom, to burn their sons and their daughters in the fire, which I did not command, nor did it come into My heart. Therefore behold, the days are coming," says the LORD, "when it will no more be called Tophet, or the Valley (H1516 גַּיא גַּי gay') of the Son of Hinnom (H2011 הִנּוֹם Hinnom), but the Valley of Slaughter; for they will bury in Tophet until there is no room.

The valley (gay) of son of Hinnom (Hinnom) is known as Gay-Hinna [gheh'-en-nah] in Greek. The place is also called Valley of Hinnom (Josh 15:8,Neh 11:30), instead of valley of son of Hinnom. The reason why it is referred by Christ is because, it is in this place, the Israelites burnt their own sons and daughters on fire - A place of torment by fire.

The 2 important places where gehenna appears in NT is where Christ referring to unquenchable fire where worms die not and the soul and body destroyed. Hence, in gehenna, soul is destroyed.
It is also interesting to note that gehenna is not mentioned once in Revelation. In my opinion, lake of fire means 'gehenna'.

Hence, in Hades vs Gehenna, Authorized KJV is much erred.
 

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To begin, let’s look at the important word “hellâ€. Nearly every unbeliever and false religion is quick to point out that “hell†in the Bible only refers to the grave. Though they are correct that the word “hell†most often comes from the Hebrew “Sheol†or the Greek “Hadesâ€, they error in their assumption that “hell†refers to the grave alone.

Incorrect. The word for "hell" most often (barely) comes from Geenna, used twelve times. Eleven times, as I pointed out earlier, Hades appear in the NT, and once it is translated as "grave" (1 Cor 15:55). Just because the KJV translates Hades as "hell" does not mean that it was correct in doing so.

AKJVReader said:
“Hades†is the New Testament Greek word For “Sheolâ€. Again, the word “Hades†has different meanings. We must let the Scripture guide our thoughts. Jesus cleared up any Old Testament misunderstandings that “hell†was ONLY a grave. In Matthew 5:22, Jesus spoke of those being in danger of “HELL FIREâ€. Jesus referred to hell as being a place of: damnation, fire, destruction, torments, weeping, wailing and nashing of teeth. A place “Where THEIR WORM DIETH NOT, AND THE FIRE IS NOT QUENCHED†(Mark 9:44). So “Hades†was not always a mere Grave.
Begging the question. You are presuming that Hades is hell. Each passage you reference above uses Geenna, which is properly called hell, not Hades.

AKJVReader said:
Acts 2:31 states, "He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption." In Acts 2:31, "Hell" refers to "Hades." Hell (Greek, "Hades") is often confusing to people because it seems to only imply a place of torment and fire. However, as we learn from the true account of Luke 16, Hades had TWO compartments: Paradise and Torment. Lazarus went to the Paradise side; but, the rich man went to the Torment side. The use of the word "Hell" in Acts 2:31 refers to the Paradise side of Hades. On the cross, Jesus said to the repentant thief, “...TODAY shalt thou be with me in paradiseâ€. Jesus did not go to hell with the damned! He did not suffer after death, but went immediately to be “in paradise†(Luke 23:43). Jesus surrendered His Spirit to the Father, “Father, INTO THY HANDS I COMMEND MY SPIRIT†(Luke 23:46).

Read more:
Did Jesus Go To hell? -by David J. Stewart
Again, it is error to translate Hades as "hell." If anything should be understood to be "hell" it would be the Lake of Fire. Notice in Rev 20 that it is Hades, the grave, which is thrown into the Lake of Fire.
 

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Hence, in Hades vs Gehenna, Authorized KJV is much erred.
How can it be erred when "Hades" and "Gehenna" dont appear once in the Authorized KJV?

What is the word "hades" in the 1828 Noah Webster Dictionary?

Your search [word => 'hades' ] did not return any results. :chin

I don't disagree that NIV is a corrupted, but I also don't agree KJV is a perfect translation. Scripture is always pure but translations may go bad.
All Scripture is from the NKJV
So you know that the NIV is corrupted but you dont know the corruptions in the NKJV? I can tell you the errors in the NKJV if you want to know the truth.

How can you have full confidence in God's word if it is not a perfect translation? The Authorized King James Bible is perfect. You bring up the issue of hades, gehenna, sheol, hell and i'm not convinced of your reasoning, are there any other flaws that you see in the AKJV? or NIV?
 
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