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Desire to be a vessel of honor unto the Lord Jesus Christ?
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
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Taking the time to pray? Christ is the answer in times of need
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
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Depending upon the Holy Spirit for all you do?
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
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How are famous preachers sometimes effected by sin?
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Blessed be the Name of the LORD!
- Thread starter JLB
- Start date
God should be praised no matter what!
I would amend [the LORD] to [Yahweh]. If one speaks of God’s name, let’s speak it as a name: my name is neither my job nor my position, even if written in capitals. As the LEB reads, “Praise Yah! Praise, O servants of Yahweh, praise the name of Yahweh” (Ps.113:1). As to [blessed], that contradicts Heb.7:7—do we claim to be greater than God? While the Hebrew is different in v2, it’s still open to translation—and to mistranslation, as per the LEB, which at least got God’s name aright, unlike the NKJV. The HCSB got it right on both counts; the CSB got it wrong on both counts.
On v2, “those finite verbs, then, that speak of God as ‘blessed’ may very well be qal forms artificially leveled by the Masoretes because the distinction between the verb patterns had been forgotten (for example 2 Chr.20:26; Ps.26:12; 103:1) and would mean ‘kneel to, revere, exalt.’ If such be the case, the distinction between ‘bless[ed]’ as God to human (piel) and ‘revere[d], esteem[ed]’ as human to God (qal; cf. NIV ‘praise[d]’ in such cases) would be apparent. Where the verb appears in a human-to-human context, the qal passive participle would indicate a meaning of ‘praised, exalted,’ thus ‘blessed’ (for example Gen.14:19), while the piel would signify ‘bless’ in the formal sense” (W C Williams: Willem A VanGemeren’s New International Dictionary of OT Theology and Exegesis—CD, 2001:H1384 barake1).
YHWH (Yahweh) is LORD.
Jesus Christ is LORD; YHWH the LORD God.
This is just commentary; a rendering of different men’s opinion.
For “whoever calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved.”
Romans 10:13
What is the name of the LORD we call on to be saved?
- Jesus
- Yahweh
- Jehovah
- Adonai
- YHWH
JLB
By [different men’s opinion] (sic), I take this sageist put-down to mean that you opt for your own opinion—but how much below the surface study is it based on? You might enjoy https://archive.org/details/the-words-gone-global-exploring-bible-versions (chapter 9).
Of your numbering, 2 (with vowels) = 5 (without vowels), and 3 is a fudge of 2 long sorted. I doubt that you have delved deeply into how the Bible has presented God’s only name (so F F Bruce) and title (adonai/kurios): in the Greek 4 could stand for Jesus—and for Moses. That Moses was lord (Nb.12:11), no more makes Moses Yahweh, that that the royal king of Ps.110:1 was Yahweh: [the LORD said unto my lord]. But to follow your implied logic: YHWH (Yahweh) is LORD; Moses is LORD; [therefore is] YHWH the LORD God? BTW, your [YHWH the LORD God] is literally [YHWH YHWH God], reduplication lacking meaning, and throwing CAPS around Jesus’ lordship hardly makes your point. The terms Yahweh, Yeshua, and adonai, are not interchangeable, though there is some intersection at the noncarnate and incarnate levels.
Jesus was not even God, let alone Yahweh! Jesus is God-the-son-incarnate, the man Christ Jesus who has deificity, a deity link. We can both cite [Jesus is theos] texts: (Jhn.1:1,18; Rm.9:5; Tts.2:13; 2 Pt.1:1). The Q is how to put their envelope terms into systematic meaning when all the biblical data is in.
As to Rm.10:13, the NWT (2013) reads that “…everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.” I argue from context that here κυριος refers to Jesus—as I suspect that you do—and that here salvation refers to entering Christ’s kingdom. Jesus as lord remains obedient to his father the ultimate lord, and we may also call the spirit, lord (2 Cor.3:17: David Garland).
Just a note to say that this forum is for devotionals. Light discussion about the devotional itself is fine, debate over doctrine and terms is not. There are plenty of threads on the deity of Jesus and the Trinity where these things can be debated or discussed.
You asked me that Q before. I did answer it before, and tried to explain the terms you numbered 1-5. My position remains A# that the the psalm is about Yahweh, hidden by [the LORD] which can downgrade to Jesus [the lord], and that B# we cannot bless deity (Heb.7:7). The artwork is great; the wording doesn't match up.
So you agree that the name of the LORD by which we are saved is Jesus?
For “whoever calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved.”
Romans 10:13
JLB
I respond to answer your Q. I personally think it good to discuss devotional postings, since such content is for both heart and mind, so should be understood (Ac.8:30).
In Ps.113 it meant Yahweh, not Yeshua. In Rm.10:13, the Greek word κυριος is IMO about Yeshua as representative of Yahweh, and there is no excuse to put [lord] as [LORD] in that NT text, nor did Tyndale over reach. It is Sabellianism which confuses LORD with Lord/lord, denying the trinity of persons (father, son, and spirit). The word can represent different people in different contexts. As said, it could even mean Moses. It could mean Philip (Jhn.12:21). Praised be the name of Yahweh now and forever (Ps.113:2).