- Apr 28, 2018
- 1,107
- 529
You explained nothing, just made another assertion. Jesus didn't say that all in the graves will "hear" simultaneously and rise simultaneously. You're assuming it's simultaneous, but it doesn't say that. All this response of yours says is that you want it say that because it fits your idea.John 5:28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
John 5:29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
One resurrection, but to different destinations.
But the question I asked is in Rev. 20:5, saying "first resurrection." This implies chronology. In Acts 26:23, it says that Jesus was "the first to rise from the dead," which is obviously chronological, since it has already happened. So then, a "first resurrection" that is a future event also implies a chronology regarding the resurrection. Especially since it says "the rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended." You've already acknowledged the literal interpretation of it, since you said something about it being an undetermined amount of time (as opposed to "1000 years"). So then it appears you acknowledge the chronological events described.
I just want to know how you explain Rev. 20:5, if you claim there is only one single resurrection of both believers and unbelievers. I don't want to read your book, I just want you to explain this one thing. How do you account for this apparent contradiction to your idea in Rev. 20:5?




