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For God Does Not Show Favoritism.

Rollo Tamasi

Warrior for Christ
Member
Romans 2:11;
"For God does not show favoritism".

I would like to ask, how general is this statement?
Is it only to be used to tell us that God shows no favoritism between Jews and Gentiles concerning salvation, or can we say it is a general statement as to how God feels about other things or even everything?

My reason is this; after Jesus died, what was he doing in hell?
Did Jesus really go to hell?

The question arises from 1 Peter 3:18b-20a;
"He was put to death in the body but made alive by the Spirit, through whom he also went and preached to the spirits in prison who disobeyed long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built".

Then we see in 1 Peter 4:6;
"For this was the reason the Gospel was preached even to those who are now dead, so that they might be judged according to men in regard to the body, but live according to God in regard to the spirit".

The statement that was put to me was that Jesus died, went to hell, preached salvation to the lost souls prior to Noah and the ark, gave them a second chance, then took some of them, the ones that changed their minds, with him to paradise.

My rebuttal to this was Romans 2:11;
"For God does not show favoritism"
Romans 1:18-20;
"The wrath of God is being revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of men who suppress the truth by their wickedness, since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. For since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities---his eternal power and divine nature---have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are with out excuse".

I think we all get one chance in life and that's it when we die.​
 
Romans 2:11;
"For God does not show favoritism".

I would like to ask, how general is this statement?
Is it only to be used to tell us that God shows no favoritism between Jews and Gentiles concerning salvation, or can we say it is a general statement as to how God feels about other things or even everything?

Romans 2:9-11 (LEB) There will be affliction and distress for every human being [literally every human soul] who does evil, of the Jew first and of the Greek [non-Jew], but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and to the Greek. 11 For there is no partiality with God.
It's very specific. It only applies to every human being who does evil. Hmm, ... wait a minute. That's every human being (save Jesus of Nazareth), right? You've got nothing to worry about, just don't do evil and you're golden. Good luck with that.

All joking aside, reading through the letter of Romans (it's actually not that long that it cannot be read in one sitting. It's a letter after all.) I'm at a loss as to how anyone could view Romans 2:11 as being anything but extremely comprehensive. It even includes all of creation, when you think about it.

Providently though ("but"), there will be glory, honor and peace to everyone (every human being) who does good.

All people (Jew or non-Jew, dead or alive) will be judged based on the Gospel of Jesus Christ. Whether they lived prior to His resurrection or after, it's not going to matter. And all will be found to have done evil (even if it's only in their hearts). And unfortunately, only some will be found to have actually done good (no matter how much they might seem like a good person).

Romans 2:16 (LEB) on the day when God judges the secret things of people, according to my gospel, through Christ Jesus.

It's so comprehensive that even the creation (heavens and Earth) undergo this Judgment and redemption as well (God does not show favoritism). He's an equal opportunity redeemer:

Romans 8:20-23 (LEB) For the creation has been subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of the one who subjected it, in hope that the creation itself also will be set free from its servility to decay, into the glorious freedom of the children of God. For we know that the whole creation groans together and suffers agony together until now. Not only this, but we ourselves also, having the first fruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves while we await eagerly our adoption, the redemption of our body.

1 Corinthians 3:13, 15 (LEB) the work of each one will become evident. For the day will reveal it, because it will be revealed with fire, and the fire itself will test the work of each one, of what sort it is. ... If anyone’s work is burned up, he will suffer loss, but he himself will be saved, but so as through fire.
Just don't do any evil work and you're golden. But wait, don't we all sin???

p.s. Note that it's the fire itself that will test the work (not something that appears like fire).
 
Romans 2:11;
"For God does not show favoritism".

I would like to ask, how general is this statement?
Is it only to be used to tell us that God shows no favoritism between Jews and Gentiles concerning salvation, or can we say it is a general statement as to how God feels about other things or even everything?
Prolly everything.
In James we are reminded of the law that tells us not to show favoritism to the rich (James 2:1 NASB/ Leviticus 19:15 NASB)

And as far as the 1 Peter passage, I prefer to understand it as Jesus having preached the gospel to the men of Noah's day while they were alive, not preached to them later in hell after they died (what moron wouldn't accept salvation then?).

"6For the gospel has for this purpose been preached even to those who are dead, that though they are judged in the flesh as men, they may live in the spirit according to the will of God." (1 Peter 4:6 NASB)


Notice that Peter says they were judged IN THE FLESH. That tells me they were judged while still in the body. Not after they died. Jesus went to them in the Spirit during that time:

"18For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit; 19in which also He went and made proclamation to the spirits now in prison, 20who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark" (1 Peter 3: NASB bold and underline mine)
 
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Is it only to be used to tell us that God shows no favoritism between Jews and Gentiles concerning salvation, or can we say it is a general statement as to how God feels about other things or even everything?
What is the context of that statement?
What was Paul talking about when he made it?

That comment is in the opening passage of Romans that begins after the greeting at Ro 1:13 and continuing through Ro 3:20.
In that passage, Paul is talking about God's judgment of sinners whether they are those under the Law (Jews) or those not under the Law (Gentiles).

At 3:21, Paul begins the presentation of the contrast of Law vs. Grace.

The Law was never meant to be a means of salvation. It was the covenant between God and Israel in the form of an ancient, middle-eastern, Suzerain - Vassal treaty which prescribed the responsibilities of each party to the treaty. There is no mention of resurrection or eternal life and salvation was only in reference to salvation from their enemies in time of war.

The reward for keeping the covenant was (Deu 5:33 RSV) You shall walk in all the way which the LORD your God has commanded you, that you may live, and that it may go well with you, and that you may live long in the land which you shall possess.

The revelation of the resurrection, a new covenant, and eternal life come in the centuries after the giving of the Law. Since there was no Christi in whom to believe and have eternal life for another 15 centuries after the law, it became the understanding that being rewarded with eternal life in the paradise of God was dependent upon keeping the Law.

What Paul addresses in the beginning of Romans is that no one fully keeps the law; all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God which is being perfect love. (IMO) The Jews, who felt privileged to have been chosen ans the bearers of the law, will have no advantage over the "gentile dogs" because, even though they had the law, they were unable to keep it.

and that's how I see it........ :rocking

iakov the fool
 
I think we all get one chance in life and that's it when we die.

Perhaps, but wouldn't that view have God showing favoritism to you and everyone else blessed to live after Christ's work, as compared to those doomed to die before Jesus' Gospel was realized?
 
Perhaps, but wouldn't that view have God showing favoritism to you and everyone else blessed to live after Christ's work, as compared to those doomed to die before Jesus' Gospel was realized?
No. Paul explains this immediately following his statement about God not showing partiality:

"when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, 16on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus." (Romans 2: NASB)

IOW, whatever standard of righteousness a man knows, that is the standard by which he is judged. And Peter explains how Christ had gone in the Spirit to past generations (1 Peter 3:19 NASB) to testify life to them. The only difference for us this side of Christ is we have the full revelation of righteousness and salvation in Christ and are responsible for that revelation.

If one wants to argue favoritism, I'd say God has shown much more favoritism to the generations before Christ who lacked the full revelation of Christ, but who were extended mercy and grace anyway despite their ignorance.
 
Romans 2:11;
"For God does not show favoritism".

I would like to ask, how general is this statement?
Is it only to be used to tell us that God shows no favoritism between Jews and Gentiles concerning salvation, or can we say it is a general statement as to how God feels about other things or even everything?

My reason is this; after Jesus died, what was he doing in hell?
Did Jesus really go to hell?

The question arises from 1 Peter 3:18b-20a;
"He was put to death in the body but made alive by the Spirit, through whom he also went and preached to the spirits in prison who disobeyed long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built".

Then we see in 1 Peter 4:6;
"For this was the reason the Gospel was preached even to those who are now dead, so that they might be judged according to men in regard to the body, but live according to God in regard to the spirit".

The statement that was put to me was that Jesus died, went to hell, preached salvation to the lost souls prior to Noah and the ark, gave them a second chance, then took some of them, the ones that changed their minds, with him to paradise.

My rebuttal to this was Romans 2:11;
"For God does not show favoritism"
Romans 1:18-20;
"The wrath of God is being revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of men who suppress the truth by their wickedness, since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. For since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities---his eternal power and divine nature---have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are with out excuse".

I think we all get one chance in life and that's it when we die.​
In that passage, Paul is specifically talking about Jews vs. Gentiles.
 
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