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Immaculate Conception

electedbyHim

Elected by Him
Calvinism Overseer
Someone help me understand how Mary was sinless.

Please share Scripture only.

Grace and peace to you.
 
See this thread in the Catholic forum:
 
See this thread in the Catholic forum:
I posted here because many non catholics believe this as well.

All Christians are highly favored.

Luke 1:28

highly favored. Lit. "full of grace"—a term used of all believers in Eph_1:6, where it is translated "accepted." This portrays Mary as a recipient, not a dispenser, of divine grace.

I read your article, but do not agree. I still do not see anywhere in Scripture that says she was sinless. Again she needed a Savior, that says everything to me.

Luke 1:47 And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.
my Savior. Mary referred to God as "Savior," indicating both that she recognized her own need of a Savior, and that she knew the true God as her Savior. Nothing here or anywhere else in Scripture indicates Mary thought of herself as "immaculate" (free from the taint of original sin). Quite the opposite is true; she employed language typical of someone whose only hope for salvation is divine grace. Nothing in this passage lends support to the notion that Mary herself ought to be an object of adoration.

Merry Christmas
 
I posted here because many non catholics believe this as well.

All Christians are highly favored.

Luke 1:28



I read your article, but do not agree. I still do not see anywhere in Scripture that says she was sinless. Again she needed a Savior, that says everything to me.

Luke 1:47 And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.


Merry Christmas
So you read my post and the ignored it.
Merry Christmas
 
I posted here because many non catholics believe this as well.

All Christians are highly favored.

Luke 1:28



I read your article, but do not agree. I still do not see anywhere in Scripture that says she was sinless. Again she needed a Savior, that says everything to me.

Luke 1:47 And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.


Merry Christmas

Unconditional election a doctrine they reject unless it's Mary .
 
This thread is not about Joseph
If not for lack of spiritual & biblical discernment you would know it is exactly about just One
Mary and Joseph are one .
One
as declared by God .
Unlearned efforts to divide in two what God has made one notwithstanding



Mar 10:8
And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.
 
Luke 1:26-38 Gabriel announces to Mary that of Christ's birth through her as she found favor in God.

Simply put, God is not going to find favor in anyone who is unrighteous before Him.
 
Simply put, God is not going to find favor in anyone who is unrighteous before Him.
Do you think this holds true for King David? After all, God did declare he was a man after His own heart (1 Samuel 14) and yet David was guilty of many sins so it would seem he was far from righteous.
 
Do you think this holds true for King David? After all, God did declare he was a man after His own heart (1 Samuel 14) and yet David was guilty of many sins so it would seem he was far from righteous.
But yet, when you read 2 Samuel 12 Nathan was sent by God to rebuke David and we read in Psalms 51 David drew back to God asking for forgiveness for his sins as he knew he had transgressed against God.

Mary's descent comes through David's son Nathan, Luke 3:31. To fulfill God's promise to establish David's throne forever, God honored Nathan by making him the ancestor of the promised King (Messiah) who would sit on David's throne throughout eternity, Luke 1:31-33. Mary having no brothers that we know of to inherit the throne the inheritance would come to her first son being Jesus.

This is why God found favor only in Mary as still being a virgin before she married. Joseph descent from David was broken in being heir to the throne of David as one of his ancestors named Jeconiah (Coniah) was so evil God cursed him and his descendants from ever sitting on the throne of David, Matthew 1:1-17; Jeremiah 22:24-30; 1 Chronicles 3:17. This doesn't mean that Joseph was evil, but means none of his children could ever sit on the throne of David.
 
Luke 1:26-38 Gabriel announces to Mary that of Christ's birth through her as she found favor in God.

Simply put, God is not going to find favor in anyone who is unrighteous before Him.
But noah found grace in the sight of the Lord..

There is also the question was Mary without sin from birth ?

She wasn't born from above as she has physical parents without a divine nature .
 
Mary was not sinless. Mary like everyone else was born after Adam, Romans 5:12.

Mary confessed that God was her savior, Luke 1:47. Only sinners need a savior.
She must have been sinless before God that He found favor in her. Wouldn't you think as God would bless her she would have had a pure heart for God, maybe no doubt from the day she was born.

Here is another thought. Mary would be from the seed of Abraham possibly having faith in God all her life as she was only around 12 or 14 when she married Joseph according to that era when young girls would marry.

Just my thoughts
 
She must have been sinless before God that He found favor in her. Wouldn't you think as God would bless her she would have had a pure heart for God, maybe no doubt from the day she was born.

Here is another thought. Mary would be from the seed of Abraham possibly having faith in God all her life as she was only around 12 or 14 when she married Joseph according to that era when young girls would marry.

Just my thoughts
For all have sinned and fallen short of glory of God

What man was born without sin?

Answer Jesus .

Mary simply believed and righteous was imputed .besides see 1 John 1:9.
 
But noah found grace in the sight of the Lord..

There is also the question was Mary without sin from birth ?

She wasn't born from above as she has physical parents without a divine nature .
Being that Noah was the son of Lamech and Mary being the daughter of Joachim they were both brough up knowing God and had faith in Him. We can only speculate if either one ever sinned against God. :shrug
 
Rom 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

This is just a thought about these two verses. Could it mean that only those from the time of Adam that walked away from God have all sinned against God?
 
Being that Noah was the son of Lamech and Mary being the daughter of Joachim they were both brough up knowing God and had faith in Him. We can only speculate if either one ever sinned against God. :shrug
No,so mary would not have to be taught the Torah ,Jesus knew it he was teaching rabbis at 12,

In jewry a tzaddik knows the Torah and doesn't have to study the Torah as he embodies it .the idea of that is from before Adam and eve fell they knew the ways of God and didn't have to be taught they loved fully.

See that problem ? Pure from the womb implies no human nature as her nature isn't from man but God.jesus has the hyperstatic union only .
 
Rom 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:

This is just a thought about these two verses. Could it mean that only those from the time of Adam that walked away from God have all sinned against God?
Nope because that means today and the first audience wouldn't need to repent .all in that context with no their is none righteous ,no not one.

Jesus also said call no man good ,but the Father above .
 
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