Someone help me understand how Mary was sinless.
Please share Scripture only.
Grace and peace to you.
Please share Scripture only.
Grace and peace to you.
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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I posted here because many non catholics believe this as well.See this thread in the Catholic forum:
Understanding Mary- Immaculate Conception
1. In Lk 1:28 the angel greets Mary with the Greek word kecharitomene which is sometimes translated as “highly favoured”. However this a rather weak translation and more accurately is should be translated as “full of grace”. Even that is a simplification. The Greek kecharitomene is the perfect...christianforums.net
highly favored. Lit. "full of grace"—a term used of all believers in Eph_1:6, where it is translated "accepted." This portrays Mary as a recipient, not a dispenser, of divine grace.
my Savior. Mary referred to God as "Savior," indicating both that she recognized her own need of a Savior, and that she knew the true God as her Savior. Nothing here or anywhere else in Scripture indicates Mary thought of herself as "immaculate" (free from the taint of original sin). Quite the opposite is true; she employed language typical of someone whose only hope for salvation is divine grace. Nothing in this passage lends support to the notion that Mary herself ought to be an object of adoration.
So you read my post and the ignored it.I posted here because many non catholics believe this as well.
All Christians are highly favored.
Luke 1:28
I read your article, but do not agree. I still do not see anywhere in Scripture that says she was sinless. Again she needed a Savior, that says everything to me.
Luke 1:47 And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.
Merry Christmas
I posted here because many non catholics believe this as well.
All Christians are highly favored.
Luke 1:28
I read your article, but do not agree. I still do not see anywhere in Scripture that says she was sinless. Again she needed a Savior, that says everything to me.
Luke 1:47 And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.
Merry Christmas
If not for lack of spiritual & biblical discernment you would know it is exactly about just OneThis thread is not about Joseph
Do you think this holds true for King David? After all, God did declare he was a man after His own heart (1 Samuel 14) and yet David was guilty of many sins so it would seem he was far from righteous.Simply put, God is not going to find favor in anyone who is unrighteous before Him.
But yet, when you read 2 Samuel 12 Nathan was sent by God to rebuke David and we read in Psalms 51 David drew back to God asking for forgiveness for his sins as he knew he had transgressed against God.Do you think this holds true for King David? After all, God did declare he was a man after His own heart (1 Samuel 14) and yet David was guilty of many sins so it would seem he was far from righteous.
Mary was not sinless. Mary like everyone else was born after Adam, Romans 5:12.Someone help me understand how Mary was sinless.
Please share Scripture only.
Grace and peace to you.
But noah found grace in the sight of the Lord..Luke 1:26-38 Gabriel announces to Mary that of Christ's birth through her as she found favor in God.
Simply put, God is not going to find favor in anyone who is unrighteous before Him.
She must have been sinless before God that He found favor in her. Wouldn't you think as God would bless her she would have had a pure heart for God, maybe no doubt from the day she was born.Mary was not sinless. Mary like everyone else was born after Adam, Romans 5:12.
Mary confessed that God was her savior, Luke 1:47. Only sinners need a savior.
For all have sinned and fallen short of glory of GodShe must have been sinless before God that He found favor in her. Wouldn't you think as God would bless her she would have had a pure heart for God, maybe no doubt from the day she was born.
Here is another thought. Mary would be from the seed of Abraham possibly having faith in God all her life as she was only around 12 or 14 when she married Joseph according to that era when young girls would marry.
Just my thoughts
Being that Noah was the son of Lamech and Mary being the daughter of Joachim they were both brough up knowing God and had faith in Him. We can only speculate if either one ever sinned against God.But noah found grace in the sight of the Lord..
There is also the question was Mary without sin from birth ?
She wasn't born from above as she has physical parents without a divine nature .
No,so mary would not have to be taught the Torah ,Jesus knew it he was teaching rabbis at 12,Being that Noah was the son of Lamech and Mary being the daughter of Joachim they were both brough up knowing God and had faith in Him. We can only speculate if either one ever sinned against God.
Nope because that means today and the first audience wouldn't need to repent .all in that context with no their is none righteous ,no not one.Rom 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
This is just a thought about these two verses. Could it mean that only those from the time of Adam that walked away from God have all sinned against God?