barelohim
Member
I just noticed here a long ago thread that quoted Mathew 16:16 as evidence against infant baptism:
Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved but whoever does not believe will be condemned.
The post interpreted that the meaning here is that only a believer receives the baptism. Since an infant cannot believe there cannot be a valid baptism.
I do not believe that verse can be clearly interpreted to have that meaning. While the verse has the words believes and baptized in the same sentence it does not seem to exclusively imply that belief is necessary. In fact, the verse goes on to say that belief is necessary for salvation, not necessarily baptism.
In Acts 16 31-33 a jailer and his household is baptized and no mention of an infant is made, but that does not exclude the possibility.
Acts 2 38-41 states repent all of you and be baptized... the promise is for you and your children....
In Mark 1 5 it reads;
The whole Judean countryside and all the people of Jerusalem went out to him, Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River.
Were infants excluded from the whole countryside or city ? Also you do not baptize yourself, someone does it for you, is belief necessary for baptism ? If not can infant baptism be valid ?
Yet there is more to it. Col. 2 11-12
In whom you are also circumcised with circumcision not made by hand in despoiling of the body of the flesh: but in the circumcision of Christ. Buried with him in baptism: in whom you are risen again by the faith...
A Jewish boy is circumcised as an infant on his 8th day.
I don't see conclusive evidence either way.
Water baptism is a baptism for repentance...... so says Paul in Acts 19. So unless a babe has something to repent from, it is not required.