What's new
By:
Filters
Christian Forums

This is a sample guest message. Register a free account today to become a member! Once signed in, you'll be able to participate on this site by adding your own topics and posts, as well as connect with other members through your own private inbox!

  • Are you taking the time to pray? Christ is the answer in times of need

    https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/

  • The Gospel of Jesus Christ

    Heard of "The Gospel"? Want to know more?

    There is salvation in no other, for there is not another name under heaven having been given among men, by which it behooves us to be saved."

    Read The Gospel Online.

  • Looking to grow in the word of God more?

    See our Bible Studies and Devotionals sections in Christian Growth

  • Focus on the Family

    Strengthening families through biblical principles.

    Focus on the Family addresses the use of biblical principles in parenting and marriage to strengthen the family.

    Read daily articles from Focus on the Family in the Marriage and Parenting Resources forum.

  • Have questions about the Christian faith?

    Come ask us what's on your mind in Questions and Answers

  • How are famous preachers sometimes effected by sin?

    Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject

    https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042

The Law

Drew said:
I entirely agree on both points. What is especially mystifying to me is that so many believers do not know that the Law was clearly given to Jews and was for Jews only. This is really quite clear in the scriptures.

Paul certainly believes this, arguing here that if one could be saved by the Law, then salvation would be limited to Jews:

For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also,

Paul could not be more clear than he is here - the Law of Moses was only for Jews.
Click to expand...
The Jews possessed the law, so they certainly had the law in that sense. And it was understood that a gentile essentially became Jewish by adopting the way of life the commands and precepts of Jewish law required in order to approach God for salvation. But Paul does show us that even gentiles who don't have the law may have the law written on their hearts, and so in that sense the whole world has, and is under (and condemned or acquitted by) the law, whether they 'have' the law or not:

12 All who sin apart from the law will also perish apart from the law, and all who sin under the law will be judged by the law. 14 (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law, 15 since they show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts now accusing, now even defending them.) Romans 2:12,14-15 NIV1984)


Personally, I don't think it's necessary to argue who was given the law and who wasn't in order to help determine who is, or isn't under it now because the reasons certain literal aspects of the law don't have to be kept now has nothing to do with that anyway.
 
Stormcrow said:
"Gentile."
Click to expand...

Did you read my thread on Gentiles?

It does not mean non-Jew.

Mark 10:33:Saying, Behold, we go up to Jerusalem; and the Son of man shall be delivered unto the chief priests, and unto the scribes; and they shall condemn him to death, and shall deliver him to the Gentiles:

Was Jesus delivered to non-Jews?

Point out clearly where in the Bible it states ''non-Jew'' - not gentile.
 
JJsaint said:
Did you read my thread on Gentiles?

It does not mean non-Jew.

Mark 10:33:Saying, Behold, we go up to Jerusalem; and the Son of man shall be delivered unto the chief priests, and unto the scribes; and they shall condemn him to death, and shall deliver him to the Gentiles:

Was Jesus delivered to non-Jews?

Point out clearly where in the Bible it states ''non-Jew'' - not gentile.
Click to expand...

Gentile means non-Jew. Mark 10:33 refers to the Roman authorities as Gentiles, which clearly defeats your little "Greek" idea.
 
2Ti 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Query: Is the Law a part of “all scripture is given by inspiration”? If so, why do Christians want to cut it out of their bibles, practically speaking? Like they cut out the Psalms, practically speaking, replacing it with hymnbooks?

FC
 
Former Christian said:
2Ti 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Query: Is the Law a part of “all scripture is given by inspiration”? If so, why do Christians want to cut it out of their bibles, practically speaking? Like they cut out the Psalms, practically speaking, replacing it with hymnbooks?

FC
Click to expand...

Not all of us cut it out, some of us agree with Paul...

Rom 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the law. - NKJV
 
And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures
Click to expand...
Kinda' proves Paul wasn't writing about his own letters in verse 16, huh? Where were Paul's letters when Timothy was a child???

They didn't exist.

But that's an argument for another day.
 
Former Christian said:
Query: Is the Law a part of “all scripture is given by inspiration� If so, why do Christians want to cut it out of their bibles, practically speaking? Like they cut out the Psalms, practically speaking, replacing it with hymnbooks?

FC
Click to expand...
Quick and easy answer:
Because the writers of the NT summarize the practical teachings of the OT so well in the New Testament.

(1 result returned 31 seconds)
 
Yes the law is included in II Tim.2:15-17.

Christians DO NOT cut the law (OT) out of the Bible, such is a misnomer and often used by some who seek distraction from the truth.

I Cor. 10:11 and Rom. 15:4 teach the place of the Old Testament in our age.
 
Former Christian said:
2Ti 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
2Ti 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Ti 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

Query: Is the Law a part of “all scripture is given by inspiration� If so, why do Christians want to cut it out of their bibles, practically speaking? Like they cut out the Psalms, practically speaking, replacing it with hymnbooks?

FC
Click to expand...

The law is was & will always be inside of Heavens Throne Room. (The Great Original) The copy that God alone WROTE in two tables of stone is the ONLY PART OF THE BOOK THAT HE ALONE WROTE. And this Inspiration has NO Beginning or Ending and finds it Documented in Eternity for how 'life' (other words, unfallen & un/fallan angels) are to be tested for having any 'LIGHT' (or 1 John 2:4 of being LIARS! compare Rev. 11:19 + Rev. 22:8-9)

[20] To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.

And... 'to the testimony' if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.

That has the Inspired Holy men using their own descriptive wordings to give us their TESTIFIED to picture of their vision. And as Christ stated in His Matt. 4:4 Truth, one needs all the Bibles pen to get the TRUE picture.

And some.. (milk/fed one made light of the 2 Tim. 3:16's Eternal Truth of not being around yet in the N.T.??? :robot:robot ) ... need to be Born Again of the Holy Spirit & KNOW THAT CHRIST THE WORD is Immortal + Eternal in all directions! John 1:1-14

+ the 2 Cor. 3:3 verse finds the LETTER [EPISTLE] of Christ as His MORAL MAKEUP! Christ/God's law is Agape Love in PERFECTION. There would be NO WAY to be 'IN CHRIST' Rom. 8:1 without HIS MORAL CHARACTER BEING RECREATED INSIDE OF US!! Heb. 10:15-16

Again: When one says that God's LAW has been garbage/canned! you can rest assured that you are on satan's forbidden by God ground!

--Elijah
 
Sinthesis said:
Gentile means non-Jew. Mark 10:33 refers to the Roman authorities as Gentiles, which clearly defeats your little "Greek" idea.
Click to expand...

Mark 10:33:Saying, Behold, we go up to Jerusalem; and the Son of man shall be delivered unto the chief priests, and unto the scribes; and they shall condemn him to death, and shall deliver him to the Gentiles:

Were the Chief Priests and Scribes who were Judeaens,non Jews?

Luke 7:5:For he loveth our nation, and he hath built us a synagogue.

Did the Centurion love the non Jews?(as nation has the same translation as gentile)

John 18:35:Pilate answered, Am I a Jew? Thine own nation and the chief priests have delivered thee unto me: what hast thou done?

Why does nation have the exact same meaning as gentile yet they are Just different words?Was Judea a gentile nation?Was Judea a non Jew nation?

Ephesians 2:11:Therefore, remember that formerly you who are Gentiles by birth and called “uncircumcised” by those who call themselves “the circumcision” (which is done in the body by human hands)— New International Version

How could someone be a non-Jew by birth?
 
Jethro Bodine said:
But Paul does show us that even gentiles who don't have the law may have the law written on their hearts, and so in that sense the whole world has, and is under (and condemned or acquitted by) the law, whether they 'have' the law or not:
Click to expand...
I am quite familiar with the passage from Romans 2.

I would say that when Paul refers to the Gentile "keeping the law", he is not really talking about the Law of Moses per se.

I can entirely understand that you (and others) think my position on this matter of Paul and the Law seems problematic. I do not have time to get into the details, but I suggest that Paul's view of "law" is very complex indeed.
 
and they shall condemn him to death, and shall deliver him to the Gentiles:

Were the Chief Priests and Scribes who were Judeaens,non Jews?
Click to expand...

Oy! Read the rest of the story!!!!

Early in the morning the chief priests with the elders and scribes and the whole Council, immediately held a consultation; and binding Jesus, they led Him away and delivered Him to Pilate. Mark 15:1 (NASB)

Pilate wasn't a Jew: he was a Roman...A GENTILE!!!

The [Roman] soldiers took Him away into the palace (that is, the Praetorium), and they *called together the whole Roman cohort. They *dressed Him up in purple, and after twisting a crown of thorns, they put it on Him; and they began to acclaim Him, "Hail, King of the Jews!" They kept beating His head with a reed, and spitting on Him, and kneeling and bowing before Him. Mark 15:16-19 (NASB)

Romans are the Gentiles discussed earlier in the book of Mark (and all the gospels!!!)

End of discussion!!!
 
You must log in or register to reply here.
Back
Top