King David
Member
My study of Sacred Scripture has shown me that Jesus never claimed to be God nor did any of the Apostles or anyone in ancient Israel think that the Messiah would be God. But I'll explain some verses later in this post with the character limit that I have.
I mean I know Jesus is called "god" but it must be understood in the secondary sense. In the Hebrew culture and language the term "god" for them didn't always mean what we think when we think of the word "god" and it was used on a much wider spectrum. The Hebrew words usually used for God in the OT were "elohim," "el," or "eloah"-all which mean a mighty one or a master/ruler or a great one or something of that nature and it didn't always necessarily mean what we think of when we use the word "god." All the judges and spiritual leaders of ancient Israel were called elohim (see Exodus 21:6 in Hebrew). Abraham was called an elohim in Genesis 23:6 which many translations translate as "mighty one" or "mighty prince." This Hebrew thinking is reflected by the Jewish Apostles where even Satan was called by the Apostle Paul the "god of this age" in 2 Corinthians 4:4. And the obvious meaning of that is that Satan is the master and mighty one of this current age since he is controlling mankind through sin. The Babylonian king was called an "el" in Ezekiel 31:11 which is almost always translated in this verse as "mighty one" or "ruler." The Trinitarian bias of most translators can be clearly seen by comparing Isaiah 9:6 (el = “God”) with Ezekiel 31:11 (el = “ruler” or "mighty one"). If calling the Messiah "el" makes him God, then the Babylonian king would be God also. You were either called "god" if you represented God or you were called "god" if you were a "mighty one" or a "master/ruler" which is what "god" meant to the Hebrews. Jesus even points out the fact in John chapter 10 verse 34 that the Jews were called gods and he actually quotes Psalm 82 which was understood to be spoken by God, who sits in judgment on the judges and magistrates whom He has appointed, and gives the name of “gods” (elohim) as representing Himself. And if the judges and rulers of ancient Israel were called "god" you can bet that the King Messiah who has been given all authority in heaven and on earth will also be called "god."
Jesus never displays the characteristics of God in the Almighty sense. James 1:13 says that God cannot be tempted of evil yet Jesus was tempted of evil. Luke 2:52 says that Jesus grew in wisdom and stature with God and man. God can't grow in stature and wisdom much less with Himself. Jesus doesn't know the hour but the Father Almighty only (Mark 13:32)-God is not ignorant. Scripture says that God is not a man, in Numbers chapter 23 verse 19 as well as in 1 Samuel 15:29 and Hosea 11:9.
John 1:1; 14
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
It's important to know that the "Word" in John 1 is not a person. The Greek word for "Word" in Greek is "Logos" and it means "a divine utterance" or it could also just mean "a saying" or "a decree." The Word in John 1 is the Gospel of eternal life. We know for a fact that the Word in John 1 is not a person because John calls the Word in the opening of his first epistle a "that" (it could also be translated as "what"). The opening of John's first epistle says:
"That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word (Logos) of life (comp. with John 1:4);
(For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, (comp. with John 1:2) and was manifested unto us;) (comp. with John 1:14)
That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with His Son Jesus Christ."
So we can see clearly here that the "Word" of John 1 is not a person but the Gospel of eternal life which was eventually realized in the person of Christ. In fact, the first eight English translations of the Bible that were based off of the Greek text before the King James all called the Word an "it" in John 1:1-4. Read the Geneva, William Tyndale, etc. They all correctly call the Word an "it" in John 1:1-4. The proper interpretation of John 1 is very easy. In the beginning God already had planned out man's redemption before their fall. The Gospel was in the mind and plan of God and that plan was divine and expressive of God. All things were made with that Gospel in mind and without it was not anything made that was made. The Gospel was eventually realized in the person of the King Messiah (the Word became flesh). Jesus is the physical embodiment of the Gospel of God.
"And God said: ‘Let us make man in our image, after our likeness; and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.’" (Genesis 1:26)
As many Biblical Unitarian, Jewish, and even Trinitarian scholars have pointed out, God often speaks majestically to His heavenly court in the plural. As the NIV study Bible (a Trinitarian translation) states in its footnote of Genesis 1:26, "Us… Our… Our. God speaks as the Creator-king, announcing His crowning work to the members of His heavenly court (see 3:22; 11:7; Isaiah 6:8; I Kings 22:19-23; Job 15:8; Jeremiah 23:18)." It doesn't mean that He was inviting them to help him create, He was just speaking majestically as the Creator King. This is found in other places in Scripture. Biblical examples include Daniel's statement to Nebuchadnezzar, "We will tell the interpretation thereof before the king" (Daniel 2:36). Daniel, however, was the only one who gave the king the interpretation of his dream. King Artaxerxes wrote in a letter, "The letter which ye sent unto us hath been plainly read before me" (Ezra 4:18). The letter was sent to Artaxerxes alone (Ezra 4:11), yet he said it was sent to "us," and was read before "me." Clearly the letter was only sent to, and read to Artaxerxes. When Artaxerxes penned another letter to Ezra he used the first person singular pronoun "I" in one place and the first person plural pronoun "we" in another (Ezra 7:13, 24).
IS JESUS THE CREATOR?
I've seen some Trinitarians try to use verses which supposedly suggest that Jesus is the "co-creator" with God the Father. They'll use verses like these as quoted from the Douay-Rheims:
"For in him were all things created in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones, or dominations, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him and in him." (Col 1:16)
Thankfully the Douay-Rheims correctly translates this as "For in him were all things created..." not "For by him" as many translations do. But it unfortunately continues to say that all things were "created by him" at the end of the verse which really isn't a proper translation. The Greek word there is "dia" and it means "through/on account of." So what it means is that all things were created through Jesus in the sense that all things were created with Jesus in mind. For example, Hebrews 1:2 says that God made the ages through (dia) Jesus. And the obvious meaning of that is that God planned out the ages with Jesus in mind as His focal point.
The problem with trying to say that Jesus is the Creator is that 1 Peter 1:20 says that Jesus was "foreknown before the foundation of the world." If Jesus was "foreknown before the foundation of the world" then he wasn't present to quote on quote "create all things." Likewise, a "foreknown" Son could not have always existed before being "foreknown" otherwise the meaning of the word "foreknown" is meaningless. You can't be eternal and be God if you were "foreknown."
The Messiah can't be God. Isaiah 11:1-3 says that the Messiah will fear God. And of course there is no one who fits this description better than Jesus since he was completely sinless. The Father is Jesus' God just like He is ours:
Ephesians 1:17
I keep asking that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the glorious Father, may give you the spirit of wisdom and revelation, so that you may know Him better.
Revelation 1:6
And has made us to be a kingdom and priests to serve his God and Father– to him be glory and power for ever and ever! Amen.
Revelation 3:12
Him who overcomes I will make a pillar in the temple of my God. Never again will he leave it. I will write on him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which is coming down out of heaven from my God; and I will also write on him my new name.
If Jesus has a God then he by definition cannot be God. Incidentally, if Jesus is "the Son of" God then he is by definition not "God." If Jesus is "the servant of" the LORD then he is by definition not "the LORD." Simple stuff really.
I mean I know Jesus is called "god" but it must be understood in the secondary sense. In the Hebrew culture and language the term "god" for them didn't always mean what we think when we think of the word "god" and it was used on a much wider spectrum. The Hebrew words usually used for God in the OT were "elohim," "el," or "eloah"-all which mean a mighty one or a master/ruler or a great one or something of that nature and it didn't always necessarily mean what we think of when we use the word "god." All the judges and spiritual leaders of ancient Israel were called elohim (see Exodus 21:6 in Hebrew). Abraham was called an elohim in Genesis 23:6 which many translations translate as "mighty one" or "mighty prince." This Hebrew thinking is reflected by the Jewish Apostles where even Satan was called by the Apostle Paul the "god of this age" in 2 Corinthians 4:4. And the obvious meaning of that is that Satan is the master and mighty one of this current age since he is controlling mankind through sin. The Babylonian king was called an "el" in Ezekiel 31:11 which is almost always translated in this verse as "mighty one" or "ruler." The Trinitarian bias of most translators can be clearly seen by comparing Isaiah 9:6 (el = “God”) with Ezekiel 31:11 (el = “ruler” or "mighty one"). If calling the Messiah "el" makes him God, then the Babylonian king would be God also. You were either called "god" if you represented God or you were called "god" if you were a "mighty one" or a "master/ruler" which is what "god" meant to the Hebrews. Jesus even points out the fact in John chapter 10 verse 34 that the Jews were called gods and he actually quotes Psalm 82 which was understood to be spoken by God, who sits in judgment on the judges and magistrates whom He has appointed, and gives the name of “gods” (elohim) as representing Himself. And if the judges and rulers of ancient Israel were called "god" you can bet that the King Messiah who has been given all authority in heaven and on earth will also be called "god."
Jesus never displays the characteristics of God in the Almighty sense. James 1:13 says that God cannot be tempted of evil yet Jesus was tempted of evil. Luke 2:52 says that Jesus grew in wisdom and stature with God and man. God can't grow in stature and wisdom much less with Himself. Jesus doesn't know the hour but the Father Almighty only (Mark 13:32)-God is not ignorant. Scripture says that God is not a man, in Numbers chapter 23 verse 19 as well as in 1 Samuel 15:29 and Hosea 11:9.
John 1:1; 14
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
It's important to know that the "Word" in John 1 is not a person. The Greek word for "Word" in Greek is "Logos" and it means "a divine utterance" or it could also just mean "a saying" or "a decree." The Word in John 1 is the Gospel of eternal life. We know for a fact that the Word in John 1 is not a person because John calls the Word in the opening of his first epistle a "that" (it could also be translated as "what"). The opening of John's first epistle says:
"That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word (Logos) of life (comp. with John 1:4);
(For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, (comp. with John 1:2) and was manifested unto us;) (comp. with John 1:14)
That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with His Son Jesus Christ."
So we can see clearly here that the "Word" of John 1 is not a person but the Gospel of eternal life which was eventually realized in the person of Christ. In fact, the first eight English translations of the Bible that were based off of the Greek text before the King James all called the Word an "it" in John 1:1-4. Read the Geneva, William Tyndale, etc. They all correctly call the Word an "it" in John 1:1-4. The proper interpretation of John 1 is very easy. In the beginning God already had planned out man's redemption before their fall. The Gospel was in the mind and plan of God and that plan was divine and expressive of God. All things were made with that Gospel in mind and without it was not anything made that was made. The Gospel was eventually realized in the person of the King Messiah (the Word became flesh). Jesus is the physical embodiment of the Gospel of God.
"And God said: ‘Let us make man in our image, after our likeness; and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.’" (Genesis 1:26)
As many Biblical Unitarian, Jewish, and even Trinitarian scholars have pointed out, God often speaks majestically to His heavenly court in the plural. As the NIV study Bible (a Trinitarian translation) states in its footnote of Genesis 1:26, "Us… Our… Our. God speaks as the Creator-king, announcing His crowning work to the members of His heavenly court (see 3:22; 11:7; Isaiah 6:8; I Kings 22:19-23; Job 15:8; Jeremiah 23:18)." It doesn't mean that He was inviting them to help him create, He was just speaking majestically as the Creator King. This is found in other places in Scripture. Biblical examples include Daniel's statement to Nebuchadnezzar, "We will tell the interpretation thereof before the king" (Daniel 2:36). Daniel, however, was the only one who gave the king the interpretation of his dream. King Artaxerxes wrote in a letter, "The letter which ye sent unto us hath been plainly read before me" (Ezra 4:18). The letter was sent to Artaxerxes alone (Ezra 4:11), yet he said it was sent to "us," and was read before "me." Clearly the letter was only sent to, and read to Artaxerxes. When Artaxerxes penned another letter to Ezra he used the first person singular pronoun "I" in one place and the first person plural pronoun "we" in another (Ezra 7:13, 24).
IS JESUS THE CREATOR?
I've seen some Trinitarians try to use verses which supposedly suggest that Jesus is the "co-creator" with God the Father. They'll use verses like these as quoted from the Douay-Rheims:
"For in him were all things created in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones, or dominations, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him and in him." (Col 1:16)
Thankfully the Douay-Rheims correctly translates this as "For in him were all things created..." not "For by him" as many translations do. But it unfortunately continues to say that all things were "created by him" at the end of the verse which really isn't a proper translation. The Greek word there is "dia" and it means "through/on account of." So what it means is that all things were created through Jesus in the sense that all things were created with Jesus in mind. For example, Hebrews 1:2 says that God made the ages through (dia) Jesus. And the obvious meaning of that is that God planned out the ages with Jesus in mind as His focal point.
The problem with trying to say that Jesus is the Creator is that 1 Peter 1:20 says that Jesus was "foreknown before the foundation of the world." If Jesus was "foreknown before the foundation of the world" then he wasn't present to quote on quote "create all things." Likewise, a "foreknown" Son could not have always existed before being "foreknown" otherwise the meaning of the word "foreknown" is meaningless. You can't be eternal and be God if you were "foreknown."
The Messiah can't be God. Isaiah 11:1-3 says that the Messiah will fear God. And of course there is no one who fits this description better than Jesus since he was completely sinless. The Father is Jesus' God just like He is ours:
Ephesians 1:17
I keep asking that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the glorious Father, may give you the spirit of wisdom and revelation, so that you may know Him better.
Revelation 1:6
And has made us to be a kingdom and priests to serve his God and Father– to him be glory and power for ever and ever! Amen.
Revelation 3:12
Him who overcomes I will make a pillar in the temple of my God. Never again will he leave it. I will write on him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which is coming down out of heaven from my God; and I will also write on him my new name.
If Jesus has a God then he by definition cannot be God. Incidentally, if Jesus is "the Son of" God then he is by definition not "God." If Jesus is "the servant of" the LORD then he is by definition not "the LORD." Simple stuff really.
