1 Corinthians 4:15 vs. Matthew 23:9

[psalm51]

In 1 Corinthians 4:15 Paul says, "For if you were to have countless tutors in Christ, yet you would not have many fathers, for in Christ Jesus I became your father through the gospel." (NASB)

However, in Matthew 23:9 Jesus says, "And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven." (NASB)

I am capable of understanding the "fathers of Christianity" point of view that the Apostles are the original Christians, (Acts 11:26) but Paul goes on to say in the passage in 1 Corinthians, "Therefore I urge you to imitate me."

I'm personally at a bit of an impasse; I believe the Word of God is true (Psalm 119:160), just (Psalm 33:4), and pierces hearts (Hebrews 4:12) however, I cannot deny that I have some questions about these two verses that seem to contradict one another. I am not making the insinuation that I cannot tell the difference between the literal and metaphorical, but — for example, Jews do not audibly pronounce YHWH, people say G-d, or Adonai in place of the "Big Name Drop" — but it's considered acceptable to insinuate to the Corinthians that he is a spiritual father, to be imitated? However, to counterpoint myself, he does say in 1 Corinthians 11:1, "You are to imitate me, just as I imitate Christ."

 

[eddif]

In 1 Corinthians 4:15 Paul says, "For if you were to have countless tutors in Christ, yet you would not have many fathers, for in Christ Jesus I became your father through the gospel." (NASB)

However, in Matthew 23:9 Jesus says, "And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven." (NASB)

I am capable of understanding the "fathers of Christianity" point of view that the Apostles are the original Christians, (Acts 11:26) but Paul goes on to say in the passage in 1 Corinthians, "Therefore I urge you to imitate me."

I'm personally at a bit of an impasse; I believe the Word of God is true (Psalm 119:160), just (Psalm 33:4), and pierces hearts (Hebrews 4:12) however, I cannot deny that I have some questions about these two verses that seem to contradict one another. I am not making the insinuation that I cannot tell the difference between the literal and metaphorical, but — for example, Jews do not audibly pronounce YHWH, people say G-d, or Adonai in place of the "Big Name Drop" — but it's considered acceptable to insinuate to the Corinthians that he is a spiritual father, to be imitated? However, to counterpoint myself, he does say in 1 Corinthians 11:1, "You are to imitate me, just as I imitate Christ."

IMHO we have at least two human parts and maybe some more.
With the mind
With the flesh

If Christ is in us that is on earth.

If we are in Christ that representation is in heaven.

Different scriptures can look at:
Location - minimum two locations
Areas in us — heart and mind (heart more flesh - mind more spiritual area)

So we have to understand what area is being talked about.

Body soul and spirit complicates it even more.

It will be interesting what others say. Ask us all questions.

You can say yes but (if you wish).

Mississippi redneck
eddif

 

[Mungo]

In 1 Corinthians 4:15 Paul says, "For if you were to have countless tutors in Christ, yet you would not have many fathers, for in Christ Jesus I became your father through the gospel." (NASB)

However, in Matthew 23:9 Jesus says, "And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven." (NASB)

I am capable of understanding the "fathers of Christianity" point of view that the Apostles are the original Christians, (Acts 11:26) but Paul goes on to say in the passage in 1 Corinthians, "Therefore I urge you to imitate me."

I'm personally at a bit of an impasse; I believe the Word of God is true (Psalm 119:160), just (Psalm 33:4), and pierces hearts (Hebrews 4:12) however, I cannot deny that I have some questions about these two verses that seem to contradict one another. I am not making the insinuation that I cannot tell the difference between the literal and metaphorical, but — for example, Jews do not audibly pronounce YHWH, people say G-d, or Adonai in place of the "Big Name Drop" — but it's considered acceptable to insinuate to the Corinthians that he is a spiritual father, to be imitated? However, to counterpoint myself, he does say in 1 Corinthians 11:1, "You are to imitate me, just as I imitate Christ."

What is going on here is the fallacy of equivocation.
If you want to understand that see the OP in this thread: Call no man Father

 

[Hidden In Him]

In 1 Corinthians 4:15 Paul says, "For if you were to have countless tutors in Christ, yet you would not have many fathers, for in Christ Jesus I became your father through the gospel." (NASB)

However, in Matthew 23:9 Jesus says, "And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven." (NASB)

I am capable of understanding the "fathers of Christianity" point of view that the Apostles are the original Christians, (Acts 11:26) but Paul goes on to say in the passage in 1 Corinthians, "Therefore I urge you to imitate me."

I'm personally at a bit of an impasse

Hi, sister.

The difference is that Jesus was referring to using the word as a religious title in Matthew 23, much like the word "Rabbi" was used as a religious title to address spiritual leaders back then:

8 But you are not to be called "Rabbi," for you have one Teacher, and you are all brothers. 9 And do not call anyone your "Father" on earth, for you have one Father who is in Heaven. 10 Nor are you to be called "Guide," for you have one Guide, the Christ.

Paul was in no way insinuating he wanted the Corinthians to refer to him by the religious title "Father." He was simply using the father/son analogy to bring to their remembrance that he had fathered them in the gospel, and that he loved them as a father would his children.

Two completely different things.

 

[for_his_glory]

I take it to mean that Paul was saying he was a Spiritual father as in a leader called of God set over the people like a father, or one in authority to preach the Gospel message and that he wanted those he taught to do the same as being just like him with the authority and power of God and the anointing of the Holy Spirit to teach in all truths.

 

[eddif]

In 1 Corinthians 4:15 Paul says, "For if you were to have countless tutors in Christ, yet you would not have many fathers, for in Christ Jesus I became your father through the gospel." (NASB)

However, in Matthew 23:9 Jesus says, "And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven." (NASB)

I am capable of understanding the "fathers of Christianity" point of view that the Apostles are the original Christians, (Acts 11:26) but Paul goes on to say in the passage in 1 Corinthians, "Therefore I urge you to imitate me."

I'm personally at a bit of an impasse; I believe the Word of God is true (Psalm 119:160), just (Psalm 33:4), and pierces hearts (Hebrews 4:12) however, I cannot deny that I have some questions about these two verses that seem to contradict one another. I am not making the insinuation that I cannot tell the difference between the literal and metaphorical, but — for example, Jews do not audibly pronounce YHWH, people say G-d, or Adonai in place of the "Big Name Drop" — but it's considered acceptable to insinuate to the Corinthians that he is a spiritual father, to be imitated? However, to counterpoint myself, he does say in 1 Corinthians 11:1, "You are to imitate me, just as I imitate Christ."

2 Corinthians 4:7 kjv
7. But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us.

eddif