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God No One Has Seen At Any Time

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God No One Has Seen At Any Time

“Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς Θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ Πατρὸς, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο” (John 1:18)

“God no one hath ever seen; the Unique God, who is always close to the Father; He has revealed”

This verse is used by some as “proof”, that Jesus Christ cannot be “God”. It is argued, that John is clear here, that no one has ever seen God. Is this correct?

Reading this verse shows this to be wrong. Here we have in the oldest and best textual evidence, dating from the early 2nd century, even in the Gospel of John used by the early heretics. There is no doubt that the Apostle John wrote, “Θεὸν...μονογενὴς Θεὸς”. It should also be noted, that in both places, the noun, “Θεὸς”, is used without the definite Greek article “τὸν Θεόν...Θεὸς”, as John does in 1:1, “καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος” (and the Word was God). Do we translate John 1:18 as, “god no one has ever seen...the Unique god”? No!

It is very clear from John 1:18, that John is here speaking of the Father, who has never been seen, as “Θεὸν”, is here “τοῦ Πατρὸς” (the Father), Whom Jesus is always close to. In John 6:46, Jesus makes this very clear: “Not that anyone has seen the Father, except he who is from God. He has seen the Father”. Jesus here speaks of His eternal existence with God the Father, as we see the same Greek “ὢν”, as in 1:18, which is in the present, continuous tense. Also Jesus says that He is “from God” the Father, which is the preposition, “παρα”, that is, “besides, alongside”.

In Exodus chapter 33, we read, “and Yahweh said to Moses...You cannot see My face; for no man shall see Me, and live” (verses 17, 20). Yet, in verse 11 it says, “So Yahweh spoke to Moses Face to face, as a man speaks to his friend”. “pānîm ’el-pānîm”, can also mean, “Person to person”. It is clear that Yahweh here is Speaking directly to Moses, as do friends with each other. The detailed description shows that it is not a dream or vision. In verse 9 we read, “the pillar of cloud descended and stood at the door of the tabernacle”, and 10, “All the people saw the pillar of cloud standing at the tabernacle door, and all the people rose and worshipped, each man in his tent door”. Yahweh was in this Pillar of cloud, Whom Moses saw. In Deuteronomy 34:10, we read, “No prophet has arisen again in Israel like Moses, whom Yahweh knew Face to face (pānîm ’el-pānîm)”. It is clear from Exodus 33, that there are TWO Persons Who are Yahweh. The One Who meets Moses “Face to face”, as do humans when they meet each other; and the Other, Who says that no one can ever see His Face and live! The One is Jesus Christ, and the Other, The Father. There is no other explanation for this passage.

In Genesis 32, we read, “Jacob was left alone, and a Man wrestled with him until daybreak” (verse 24). This “Man” Who Jacob wrestled with, was actually “physically” with him. In verse 30, Jacob says, “Jacob then named the place Peniel, For I have seen God Face to face (’ĕlōhîm pānîm ’el-pānîm), he said, and I have been delivered”. Jacob is clear that the “Man”, Whom he wrestled with, is none other than Almighty God.

In Numbers 14:14, “They will tell it to the inhabitants of this land. They have heard that You, Lord, are among these people, how You, Yahweh, are seen Face to face (‘ayin bə‘ayin, Eye to eye), how Your cloud stands over them, and how You go before them in a pillar of cloud by day and in a pillar of fire by night”

Deuteronomy 5:4, “Yahweh spoke to you Face to face (pānîm ’el-pānîm) from the fire on the mountain”

All these Encounters are without doubt, directly with Almighty God Himself. Who is Yahweh. As this cannot be the Father, it can only be the pre-Incarnational Appearances of the Lord Jesus Christ, known as Theophanies, or Christophanies.

We also have the actual Visit from Yahweh to Abraham, in Genesis chapters 17-19, were we read of Yahweh having his “feet washed”, “eating food”, and “walking with Abraham”; all of which shows that this was not a “dream or vision”, but Yahweh actually with Abraham and Sarah.

In the 6th chapter in the Book of Judges, where we have “The Angel of Yahweh (Mal'âk Ye hôvâh)”, Visit Gideon. In verse 12 we read, “Then the Angel of Yahweh Appeared to him and said: “Yahweh is with you, mighty warrior”. Here “The Angel of Yahweh”, Speaks of Another Who is “Yahweh”. In verse 14 it says, “Yahweh looked (pânâh, to face) upon him and said”, showing “physical” contact. Gideon addresses “The Angel”, “Please, Lord (, the Name used for God), how can I deliver Israel?” (verse 15). Note that “Lord” here is, “’Aḏōnāy”, and not, “’ăḏōnê”. Clearly Gideon knows who this Mal'âk Ye hôvâh is. In the next verse, the Angel replies, “But I will be with you, the Lord said to him”. Here “LORD” is “Ye hôvâh”, Who is The Angel of Ye hôvâh! “I will be”, is in the Hebrew, “hâyâh”, which is the same in Exodus 3:14, “I AM”. Here we have The Angel of Yahweh, Who is also Yahweh, who says to Gideon, “I Am with you”. Language that is impossible for any created being to use! In verse 22 Gideon says, “When Gideon realized that He was the Angel of the Lord, he said, Oh no, Lord God (literally, ’Aḏōnāy Ye hôvâh) I have seen the Angel of the Lord Face to face (pānîm ’el-pānîm)”. Gideon is assured by Yahweh Himself, “But Yahweh said to him, Peace to you. Don’t be afraid, for you will not die” (verse 23). If this Angel of Yahweh, were a created angel, then Yahweh would not have told Gideon, “Don’t be afraid, for you will not die”, as only those who see God Face to face, will die! Nothing can be clearer from this passage in Judges, that The Angel of Yahweh, Who is clearly distinct from Yahweh, and Himself Yahweh, is The Lord Jesus Christ.

In Malachi 3:1, there is a Prophecy of the First Coming of the Lord Jesus Christ.

“See, I am going to send My messenger, and he will clear the Way before Me. Then the Lord you seek will suddenly come to His temple, the Messenger of the Covenant you desire—see, He is Coming,” says Yahweh of Hosts”

This is a very interesting verse. The Speaker here is “Yahweh of Hosts”. The first “messenger” is to clear the Way for Him, “he will clear the Way before Me”. We then have “hā 'Adônây” (The Lord, not, “Adôn”, Who is here “Mal'âk be rı̂yth” (The Messenger of the Covenant). This “Messenger” is also Coming.

In the Gospels (Matthew 11:10, etc), Jesus Christ quotes from the verse, but makes a change to the personal pronoun. Instead of “Me (μου)”, we have “You (σου). By doing so, Jesus here makes Himself the Speaker in Malachi 3:1, Who is “Yahweh of Hosts”, and He says that John the Baptist, went before Him, to prepare His Way, and that Her is “The Messenger of the Covenant”. This is one of the strongest Testimonies by Jesus Christ, to His own Absolute Deity, as “Yahweh of Hosts”. Nothing else can account for the change of the pronoun by Jesus! Matthew 3:3, etc, with Isaiah 40:3, confirms the Coming of the Lord Jesus Christ, as the Coming of Yahweh/Elohim.

Jesus Christ clearly identifies Himself as “The Messenger of Yahweh”, in the Old Testament, Who is Himself also Yahweh. Those who still argue that there is only One Person in the Bible, Who is Yahweh, and that this is the Father, are proven to be wrong from the Bible! There is no escaping the facts as taught in the Bible, that BOTH Jesus Christ, and the Father are Yahweh, but not the same Person. The Person Who Spoke with Moses FACE TO FACE, and Who is the “Man” Who Appeared to Gideon, is Yahweh. Yet we are also told that no human can see God and live. We have seen that this refers ONLY to God the Father.
 
Greetings SolaScriptura,
This verse is used by some as “proof”, that Jesus Christ cannot be “God”. It is argued, that John is clear here, that no one has ever seen God. Is this correct?
I prefer the KJV rendition of this verse and one out of the two manuscript versions must be corrupt and I suggest that the corrupt church chose the wrong one at some stage, even early. Jesus is the only begotten by virtue of the fact that God was His Father and Mary His mother in the conception / birth process.
John 1:17–18 (KJV): 17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. 18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Matthew 1:20–21 (KJV): 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived (mg Gk: begotten) in her is of the Holy Spirit. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

Luke 1:34–35 (KJV): 34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? 35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.


Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings SolaScriptura,

I prefer the KJV rendition of this verse and one out of the two manuscript versions must be corrupt and I suggest that the corrupt church chose the wrong one at some stage, even early. Jesus is the only begotten by virtue of the fact that God was His Father and Mary His mother in the conception / birth process.
John 1:17–18 (KJV): 17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. 18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Matthew 1:20–21 (KJV): 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived (mg Gk: begotten) in her is of the Holy Spirit. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

Luke 1:34–35 (KJV): 34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man? 35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.


Kind regards
Trevor
I think the statement is in context to the only eyewitness Jesus was of the Father. As John the Baptist testified the one who comes from heaven is above all and testifies to what He saw and heard.

I'm not a language scholar but the usage of the greek word μονογενὴς would seem to be in context to the only begotten child of a parent not unique in the 4 occurrences listed.
I think John would see Jesus as the only begotten like to like Son of the Father. Some manuscript families state God the begotten or the only begotten God rather than the only begotten Son. Needless to state only Jesus came down from the Fathers presence and made Him know.

KJV John 1:18
No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
 
It is argued, that John is clear here, that no one has ever seen God. Is this correct?
No it is not correct as John 14:8" Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”

9 Jesus answered: “Don’t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Don’t you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you I do not speak on my own authority. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. 11 Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the works themselves. 12 Very truly I tell you, whoever believes in me will do the works I have been doing, and they will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. 13 And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. 14 You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it."
Shows, Jesus ide tidies as being equal with God the Father.
 
No it is not correct as John 14:8" Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”

9 Jesus answered: “Don’t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Don’t you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you I do not speak on my own authority. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. 11 Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the works themselves. 12 Very truly I tell you, whoever believes in me will do the works I have been doing, and they will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. 13 And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. 14 You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it."
Shows, Jesus ide tidies as being equal with God the Father.

Jesus in the Eternal Godhead is 100% COEQUAL with God the Father and God the Holy Spirit. Three distinct Persons in One Godhead or Divine Nature.
 
I think many misunderstand that Jesus Christ the Son of God, the Word, became flesh. He became a little lower than the angels.

In His capacity as a Man, the scripture describes Him as such.

Also in His capacity as God the Son, the scripture describes Him as such.

Some only focus on the passages of scripture that relate to Him as a Man, while denying the other passages that relate to Him as God;
God the Son.



And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory.
1 Timothy 3:16




JLB
 
I think many misunderstand that Jesus Christ the Son of God, the Word, became flesh. He became a little lower than the angels.

In His capacity as a Man, the scripture describes Him as such.

Also in His capacity as God the Son, the scripture describes Him as such.

Some only focus on the passages of scripture that relate to Him as a Man, while denying the other passages that relate to Him as God;
God the Son.



And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory.
1 Timothy 3:16




JLB

at no time was Jesus Christ only "Man". He IS The Eternal God, YHWH, 100% COEQUAL with the Father and the Holy Spirit. Three distinct Persons, One Eternal Divine Nature/Godhead

At the Time of His Birth, Incarnation, Jesus remained Almighty God, took upon Himself the real Nature of humans, derived from the Virgin Mary, with the exception of any sin.

The Word, Who is Eternally God, BECAME flesh/human, The God-Man. God was MANIFESTED/VISIBLE in the flesh (John 1:1, 14; 1 Timothy 3:16). Neither BECAME or MANIFESTED means that Jesus Christ CHANGED from being Eternal God, into just a "mere Man", this is HERESY!
 
God No One Has Seen At Any Time

“Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς Θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ Πατρὸς, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο” (John 1:18)

“God no one hath ever seen; the Unique God, who is always close to the Father; He has revealed”
Your premise relies heavily on monogenés having the possible meaning of only or unique, but that is a big IF since another possible definition of this word is only-begotten.

If you will look to the broader counsel of scripture, you will see that, in the literal sense of the word, in regards to procreation, Jesus is the begotten Son of God.

Hebrews 1:5 with its usage of the word gennaó doesn't afford the same kind freedom to reinterpret Jesus' status as God's only-begotten Son in different ways like John 1:18 does. This clearly means that the Son had a literal beginning point, a birthday if you will, and therefore isn't an eternal being, i.e., Jesus isn't God. The best hermeneutical translation of John 1:18 will say Jesus is the begotten Son of God.

Hebrews 1​
5For to which of the angels did God ever say: “You are My Son; today I have become Your Father”?
 
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory.
1 Timothy 3:16
I might add that most translations don't render 1 Timothy 3:16 as "God was manifested in the flesh" because it doesn't exist in the earliest Greek manuscripts. As such, most say something like "he was manifested in the flesh."

1 Timothy 3​
16By common confession, the mystery of godliness is great:​
He appeared in the flesh,
was vindicated by the Spirit,​
was seen by angels,​
was proclaimed among the nations,​
was believed in throughout the world,​
was taken up in glory.​

This verse basically means Jesus is a man, was begotten by the Father, and was taken up into glory.
 
Your premise relies heavily on monogenés having the possible meaning of only or unique, but that is a big IF since another possible definition of this word is only-begotten.

If you will look to the broader counsel of scripture, you will see that, in the literal sense of the word, in regards to procreation, Jesus is the begotten Son of God.

Hebrews 1:5 with its usage of the word gennaó doesn't afford the same kind freedom to reinterpret Jesus' status as God's only-begotten Son in different ways like John 1:18 does. This clearly means that the Son had a literal beginning point, a birthday if you will, and therefore isn't an eternal being, i.e., Jesus isn't God. The best hermeneutical translation of John 1:18 will say Jesus is the begotten Son of God.

Hebrews 1​
5For to which of the angels did God ever say: “You are My Son; today I have become Your Father”?

 
I might add that most translations don't render 1 Timothy 3:16 as "God was manifested in the flesh" because it doesn't exist in the earliest Greek manuscripts. As such, most say something like "he was manifested in the flesh."

1 Timothy 3​
16By common confession, the mystery of godliness is great:​
He appeared in the flesh,
was vindicated by the Spirit,​
was seen by angels,​
was proclaimed among the nations,​
was believed in throughout the world,​
was taken up in glory.​

This verse basically means Jesus is a man, was begotten by the Father, and was taken up into glory.


So you believe the Greek word Theos doesn't mean God?
 
So you believe the Greek word Theos doesn't mean God?
Theos means god, yes. I am not sure how that is related to my post.

The word "god" isn't in 1 Timothy 3:16 in the Byzantine manuscripts which outdate what you're quoting from by over 1,000 years.
 
Theos means god, yes. I am not sure how that is related to my post.

The word "god" isn't in 1 Timothy 3:16 in the Byzantine manuscripts which outdate what you're quoting from by over 1,000 years.
What's your source that the Byzantine texts didn't read Theos?
 
What's your source that the Byzantine texts didn't read Theos?
There are many, the one I am looking at says this:

"3.16 o [j {A}The reading which, on the basis of external evidence and transcriptional probability, best explains the rise of the others is o[j. It is supported by the earliest and best uncials as well as by 33 365 442 2127 Origen lat Epiphanius Jerome Theodore Eutherius. to Theodoret Cyril Cyril. to Ps-Oecumenius Liberatus.​
Furthermore, since the neuter relative pronoun o [ must have arisen as a scribal correction of o [j (to bring the relative into concord with Page 574musth,rion), the witnesses that read o [ (D* itd, g, 61. 86 vg Ambrosiaster Marius Victorinus Hilary Pelagius Augustine) also indirectly presuppose o [j as the earlier reading. The Textus Receptusreads (this corrector is of the twelfth century) A2 C2 Dc K L PY 81 330 614 1739Byz Lect Gregory-Nyssa Didymus Chrysostom Theodor et Euthalius and later Fathers. Thus, nouncial (in the first hand) earlier than the eighth or ninth century (Y) supports qeo,j; all ancient versions presuppose o [j or o [; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth centurytestifies to the reading qeo,j. The reading qeo ,j arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of oc as ;'c', or (b) deliberately, either to supply a substantive for the following six verbs, or, with less probability, to provide greater dogmatic precision."​


Bruce Metzger, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, 2nd Ed., (New York, NY: American Bible Society, 1975), 641.

Long story short, Metzger proves that "God" in 1 Timothy 3:16 is a late addition and most likely a deliberate corruption of the text rather than a scribal error.
 
There are many, the one I am looking at says this:

"3.16 o [j {A}The reading which, on the basis of external evidence and transcriptional probability, best explains the rise of the others is o[j. It is supported by the earliest and best uncials as well as by 33 365 442 2127 Origen lat Epiphanius Jerome Theodore Eutherius. to Theodoret Cyril Cyril. to Ps-Oecumenius Liberatus.​
Furthermore, since the neuter relative pronoun o [ must have arisen as a scribal correction of o [j (to bring the relative into concord with Page 574musth,rion), the witnesses that read o [ (D* itd, g, 61. 86 vg Ambrosiaster Marius Victorinus Hilary Pelagius Augustine) also indirectly presuppose o [j as the earlier reading. The Textus Receptusreads (this corrector is of the twelfth century) A2 C2 Dc K L PY 81 330 614 1739Byz Lect Gregory-Nyssa Didymus Chrysostom Theodor et Euthalius and later Fathers. Thus, nouncial (in the first hand) earlier than the eighth or ninth century (Y) supports qeo,j; all ancient versions presuppose o [j or o [; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth centurytestifies to the reading qeo,j. The reading qeo ,j arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of oc as ;'c', or (b) deliberately, either to supply a substantive for the following six verbs, or, with less probability, to provide greater dogmatic precision."​


Bruce Metzger, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, 2nd Ed., (New York, NY: American Bible Society, 1975), 641.

Long story short, Metzger proves that "God" in 1 Timothy 3:16 is a late addition and most likely a deliberate corruption of the text rather than a scribal error.
The word "god" isn't in 1 Timothy 3:16 in the Byzantine manuscripts

What is your source for this? Not for "He" was manifested in the flesh.
 
The word "god" isn't in 1 Timothy 3:16 in the Byzantine manuscripts

What is your source for this? Not for "He" was manifested in the flesh.


By far the strongest, and oldest evidence, is from the quotations made by the Greek Church Fathers, who clearly read θεὸς.

As early as Ignatius, Bishop of Antioch (AD 35-107), the reading θεὸς was the original in 1 Timothy 3:16. In at least 2 places in his Letter to the Ephesians, he writes: “God come in the flesh” (εν σαρκι γενομενοϛ Θεοϛ; Loeb Classical Library, The Apostolic Fathers, Vol. 1, chapter 7, pp. 226, 227); and in chapter 19, “God became manifest in a human way” (Θεου ανθρωπινωϛ ϕανερουμενου, ibid, pp. 238, 239). Clearly references to 1 Timothy 3:16.

In the next century, we have the theologian Hippolytus (170-236), in his work against the heretic, Noetus, write:

“And even as He was preached then, in the same manner also did He come and manifest Himself, being by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit made a new man; for in that He had the heavenly (nature) of the Father, as the Word and the earthly (nature), as taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam by the medium of the Virgin, He now, coming forth into the world, was manifested as God in a body, coming forth too as a perfect man. For it was not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man.” (ANF05. Fathers of the Third Century, sec, 17)

Not only do we have the early testimony of Ignatius, and Hippolytus, for the reading "Θεοϛ", (a) Gregory Thaumaturgus (213-270); (b) Didymus (313-398); (c) Gregory of Nyssa (330-395), who quotes this text 22 times with Θεοϛ!; (d) Chrysostom (347-407); (e) Cyril Alex. (died 444); (f) Theodoret (393-458); (g) Apollinarius (310-390, heretic!). Here, we have the testimony of writers (all Greek) from the first, to the fifth century, who found Θεοϛ in their copies of 1 Timothy 3:16! The heretic Origen (185-254), who taught that Jesus Christ was a created being, is the earliest quote of ὃς, though in a Latin translation of his work.

The Greek New Testaments of Erasmus (1519); Robert Estienne (1550); Theodore Beza (1598); Elzevir (1624); Johann Jakob Wettstein (1751-52); John Mill (1814) read Θεοϛ. As do William Tyndale (1534); Coverdale (1535); Matthew's (1537); Great Bible (1539); Bishops Bible (1568); Geneva Bible (1560) King James (1611). Wycliffe (1382), followed the Latin Vulgate, and reads, “that thing that”. Between 1775-7, the German scholar, Johann Griesbach, published his critical Greek New Testament, which was against the Textus Receptus. He adopted the reading ὃς, which is the first Greek NT to use this reading. Before this time, two other Germans, Martin Luther (1545), and Johann Albrecht Bengel (1742), read, “Gott”(God).

The reading in the majority of modern Versions, is from the Greek “ὃς”, which is "WHO", which is clearly a corruption to what the Apostle Paul actually wrote, as the evidence I have given clearly shows.

The very early Patristic evidence shows that the Greek New Testaments of these Church fathers, had Θεοϛ, which was changed.
 
By far the strongest, and oldest evidence, is from the quotations made by the Greek Church Fathers, who clearly read θεὸς.

As early as Ignatius, Bishop of Antioch (AD 35-107), the reading θεὸς was the original in 1 Timothy 3:16. In at least 2 places in his Letter to the Ephesians, he writes: “God come in the flesh” (εν σαρκι γενομενοϛ Θεοϛ; Loeb Classical Library, The Apostolic Fathers, Vol. 1, chapter 7, pp. 226, 227); and in chapter 19, “God became manifest in a human way” (Θεου ανθρωπινωϛ ϕανερουμενου, ibid, pp. 238, 239). Clearly references to 1 Timothy 3:16.

In the next century, we have the theologian Hippolytus (170-236), in his work against the heretic, Noetus, write:

“And even as He was preached then, in the same manner also did He come and manifest Himself, being by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit made a new man; for in that He had the heavenly (nature) of the Father, as the Word and the earthly (nature), as taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam by the medium of the Virgin, He now, coming forth into the world, was manifested as God in a body, coming forth too as a perfect man. For it was not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man.” (ANF05. Fathers of the Third Century, sec, 17)

Not only do we have the early testimony of Ignatius, and Hippolytus, for the reading "Θεοϛ", (a) Gregory Thaumaturgus (213-270); (b) Didymus (313-398); (c) Gregory of Nyssa (330-395), who quotes this text 22 times with Θεοϛ!; (d) Chrysostom (347-407); (e) Cyril Alex. (died 444); (f) Theodoret (393-458); (g) Apollinarius (310-390, heretic!). Here, we have the testimony of writers (all Greek) from the first, to the fifth century, who found Θεοϛ in their copies of 1 Timothy 3:16! The heretic Origen (185-254), who taught that Jesus Christ was a created being, is the earliest quote of ὃς, though in a Latin translation of his work.

The Greek New Testaments of Erasmus (1519); Robert Estienne (1550); Theodore Beza (1598); Elzevir (1624); Johann Jakob Wettstein (1751-52); John Mill (1814) read Θεοϛ. As do William Tyndale (1534); Coverdale (1535); Matthew's (1537); Great Bible (1539); Bishops Bible (1568); Geneva Bible (1560) King James (1611). Wycliffe (1382), followed the Latin Vulgate, and reads, “that thing that”. Between 1775-7, the German scholar, Johann Griesbach, published his critical Greek New Testament, which was against the Textus Receptus. He adopted the reading ὃς, which is the first Greek NT to use this reading. Before this time, two other Germans, Martin Luther (1545), and Johann Albrecht Bengel (1742), read, “Gott”(God).

The reading in the majority of modern Versions, is from the Greek “ὃς”, which is "WHO", which is clearly a corruption to what the Apostle Paul actually wrote, as the evidence I have given clearly shows.

The very early Patristic evidence shows that the Greek New Testaments of these Church fathers, had Θεοϛ, which was changed.
Trinitarian scholars and commentators disagree with you.

Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers:
1 Timothy 3:16

God was manifest in the flesh.—Here, in the most ancient authorities, the word “God” does not occur. We must, then, literally translate the Greek of the most famous and trustworthy MSS. as follows: He who was manifested in the flesh. In the later MSS., and in the great majority of the fathers who cite the passage, we certainly find Theos (“God”), as in the Received text. The substitution can be traced to no special doctrinal prejudice, but is owing, probably, to a well-meant correction of early scribes. At first sight, Theos (“God”) would be a reading easier to understand, and grammatically more exact; and in the original copies, the great similitude between ΘC (“God”)—the contracted form in which ΘEOC was written—and the relative ΘC (“He who”), would be likely to suggest to an officious scribe the very trifling alteration necessary for the easier and apparently more accurate word. Recent investigations have shown, however, beyond controversy that the oldest MSS., with scarcely an exception, contain the more difficult reading, ΘC (“He who”). The Greek pronoun thus rendered is simply a relative to an omitted but easily-inferred antecedent—viz., Christ. Possibly the difficulty in the construction is due to the fact of the whole verse being a fragment of an ancient Christian hymn, embodying a confession of faith, well known to, and perhaps often sung by, the faithful among the congregations of such cities as Ephesus, Corinth, and Rome—a confession embodying the grand facts of the Incarnation and the Resurrection, the preaching of the cross to, and its reception by, the Gentile world, and the present session of Christ in glory. In the original Greek the rhythmical, as well as the antithetical character, of the clauses is very striking. In the English translation they can hardly be reproduced:—
 
Theos means god, yes. I am not sure how that is related to my post.

The word "god" isn't in 1 Timothy 3:16 in the Byzantine manuscripts which outdate what you're quoting from by over 1,000 years.

Brother, The word "Theos" is the word in 1 Timothy 3:16 and is rendered God in the KJV and NKJV.

If you don't believe what's written in your bible then that is between you and your God.


And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory. 1 Timothy 3:16 NKJV


And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. 1 Timothy 3:16 KJV



And G2532 without controversy G3672 great G3173 is G2076 the mystery G3466 of godliness: G2150 God G2316 was manifest G5319 in G1722 the flesh, G4561 justified G1344 in G1722 the Spirit, G4151 seen G3700 of angels, G32 preached G2784 unto G1722 the Gentiles, G1484 believed on G4100 in G1722 the world, G2889 received up G353 into G1722 glory. G1391


God G2316
1710789404838.png
 
Trinitarian scholars and commentators disagree with you.

Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers:
1 Timothy 3:16

God was manifest in the flesh.—Here, in the most ancient authorities, the word “God” does not occur. We must, then, literally translate the Greek of the most famous and trustworthy MSS. as follows: He who was manifested in the flesh. In the later MSS., and in the great majority of the fathers who cite the passage, we certainly find Theos (“God”), as in the Received text. The substitution can be traced to no special doctrinal prejudice, but is owing, probably, to a well-meant correction of early scribes. At first sight, Theos (“God”) would be a reading easier to understand, and grammatically more exact; and in the original copies, the great similitude between ΘC (“God”)—the contracted form in which ΘEOC was written—and the relative ΘC (“He who”), would be likely to suggest to an officious scribe the very trifling alteration necessary for the easier and apparently more accurate word. Recent investigations have shown, however, beyond controversy that the oldest MSS., with scarcely an exception, contain the more difficult reading, ΘC (“He who”). The Greek pronoun thus rendered is simply a relative to an omitted but easily-inferred antecedent—viz., Christ. Possibly the difficulty in the construction is due to the fact of the whole verse being a fragment of an ancient Christian hymn, embodying a confession of faith, well known to, and perhaps often sung by, the faithful among the congregations of such cities as Ephesus, Corinth, and Rome—a confession embodying the grand facts of the Incarnation and the Resurrection, the preaching of the cross to, and its reception by, the Gentile world, and the present session of Christ in glory. In the original Greek the rhythmical, as well as the antithetical character, of the clauses is very striking. In the English translation they can hardly be reproduced:—

Charles Ellicott's comments are worthless! This is the man who was the chair of the 1881 Revised version committee, who were very much against the King James Version!

Further, on this "committee", they allowed Dr G Vance Smith, who was minister of S. Saviour's Gate Chapel, York, who was a Unitarian, and rejected that Jesus Christ is GOD.

Further, on the reading Θεοϛ, in 1 Timothy 3:16, he wrote:

“The old reading is pronounced untenable by the Revisers, as it has long been known to be by all careful students of the New Testament.... It is in truth another example of the facility with which ancient copiers could introduce the word God into their manuscripts,—a reading which was the natural result of the growing tendency in early Christian times ... to look upon the humble Teacher as the incarnate Word, and therefore as ‘God manifested in the flesh’ ” (as quoted by John Burgon in is work, The Revision Revised)

The Greek manuscripts are copies that are made by human scribes, who did in places alter or remove words or verses, as Vance Smith, that Testified to the Trinity, or Deity of Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit! The testimony of the early Church fathers are of greater weight.

With the reading “θεὸς”, which is without any doubt, the original the Apostle Paul wrote, there are no problems with the Greek grammar. However, when we read the corrupted reading, “ὃς”, we do have a grammatical problem. “ὃς” is a relative, and must have an antecedent, to agree with. But there is no antecedent in the masculine gender, for it to agree with! Interestingly, of the Latin Church Fathers who do quote this passage, they all use “ὅ” (which), which is the neuter relative, which does agree grammatically with, “τὸ μυστήριον”, which is also neuter. Ellicott, as you quote, shows this difficulty with the reading, “ὃς”, which does not exist when we read, “θεὸς”. The Bible is the Work of God the Holy Spirit, Who does not make grammatical errors!
 
Charles Ellicott's comments are worthless! This is the man who was the chair of the 1881 Revised version committee, who were very much against the King James Version!

Further, on this "committee", they allowed Dr G Vance Smith, who was minister of S. Saviour's Gate Chapel, York, who was a Unitarian, and rejected that Jesus Christ is GOD.

Further, on the reading Θεοϛ, in 1 Timothy 3:16, he wrote:

“The old reading is pronounced untenable by the Revisers, as it has long been known to be by all careful students of the New Testament.... It is in truth another example of the facility with which ancient copiers could introduce the word God into their manuscripts,—a reading which was the natural result of the growing tendency in early Christian times ... to look upon the humble Teacher as the incarnate Word, and therefore as ‘God manifested in the flesh’ ” (as quoted by John Burgon in is work, The Revision Revised)

The Greek manuscripts are copies that are made by human scribes, who did in places alter or remove words or verses, as Vance Smith, that Testified to the Trinity, or Deity of Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit! The testimony of the early Church fathers are of greater weight.

With the reading “θεὸς”, which is without any doubt, the original the Apostle Paul wrote, there are no problems with the Greek grammar. However, when we read the corrupted reading, “ὃς”, we do have a grammatical problem. “ὃς” is a relative, and must have an antecedent, to agree with. But there is no antecedent in the masculine gender, for it to agree with! Interestingly, of the Latin Church Fathers who do quote this passage, they all use “ὅ” (which), which is the neuter relative, which does agree grammatically with, “τὸ μυστήριον”, which is also neuter. Ellicott, as you quote, shows this difficulty with the reading, “ὃς”, which does not exist when we read, “θεὸς”. The Bible is the Work of God the Holy Spirit, Who does not make grammatical errors!
And yet it's still widely known that "God" doesn't appear in the earliest texts for 1 Tim. 3:16. Most trinitarian commentators either rightly agree with that or don't take a solid position on it. Most Bible versions don't add "God" to the text of 1 Timothy 3:16 either. Yet there are some who deny it. There proof has already been all presented that debunks the deity of Jesus.

Based on other things Paul said, it's obvious he didn't believe Jesus is a "god man" either. For starters, that's a paradox. God isn't a man, man isn't God. That's called a contradiction.

Here is what Paul believed and didn't change his position on this in the next chapter:

1 Timothy 2
5For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
 
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