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Why must this verse have the word "light"? the word "light" appears in many other places.
Here is the Authorized King James Version:
[FONT=arial,helvatica]"He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities." (Isaiah 53:11).
I would use this word for word translation that is the Authorized King James Bible.
Here are some links that will help you:
The New International Version - NIV
Which Bible Can We Trust?
Why would Isaiah 53:11 be okay in the KJV if it omits the word light?
Why (how) is it okay if it doesn't have the word light? How do we know which version is the correct Bible version, the one with the word "light", or the one without it?
Which version of Isaiah 53:11 is the word of God? Which one is inspired?
Which one is blessed by the Holy Spirit? Which one is the original version?
Which one speaks of the resurrection of Christ?
Which one omits the word light or life, and therefore omits reference to the resurrection of Christ?
In Erie PA Scott R. Harrington
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While it may be true that sexual abuse happens in denominations, it doesn't happen widespread, does it? Doesn't it seem to happen more in Roman Catholicism than in other "churches"? I have heard about some sexual problems even in Eastern Orthodoxy. We need to understand that even in the true Church, or in a true church, there is sin. Christ didn't promise a sinless church, just a church that can resist sin. 1 John says that whatever is born of God does not sin, but that if we say we are without sin, the truth is not in us. So we would just expect the Church Christ founded would be able to resist sin, because Christ is with Her. It will have certain signs of being One Holy Catholic and Apostolic that other denominations do not have. Take care.
You are relying on an English translation from the Hebrew text of the Great Scroll of Isaiah which in column XLIV line 12 is the same as 53:6 in the Masoretic Text. The translation states as follows: "we have turned and YHWH has caused to light on him the iniquity of us all". This has nothing to do with the "light" of resurrection or with light of any kind. It simply the translator's way of translating the Hebrew word "hefgiyah" ie inflict. The Hebrew word for light is "or" which is not found in the text of the Great Scroll. The actual Hebrew in the Great Scroll is exactly the same as in the MT, ie. "koolana ktson taeenu eesh ledarku peneenu; vadonai hefgiyah bo et avon koolanu"--We all went astray like sheep, we have turned each one on his way; and the LORD inflicted upon him the iniquity of all of us. If you don't believe me I suggest you consult someone who is fluent in Hebrew and check the DSS in the original Hebrew.
Does the original Hebrew text of the OT exist? No. Is it preserved in the Greek translation of the OT, the LXX (Septuagint)? Yes. The oldest version of the Bible that is reliable is the Greek. The Jews were in competing sects, but the rabbis who translated the Hebrew into Greek preserved the original Hebrew text in the Greek language. The Church had always used the Greek OT, and this was the OT that Jesus Christ and His apostles quoted. Take care. I would say all we have in Hebrew is copies of the original, not the original. The DSSB may be accurate in some places, but not the same as the original in others. It's impossible to say what has happened to the original Hebrew, due to the unfaithfulness of OT Israel which the Bible talks about, it's no surprise if they had lost touch with the original words of the Lord in some places. But God providentially worked through the Jewish rabbis who preserved the Hebrew in the Greek language, in providential foresight that the NT would be written in Greek, not in Hebrew, and that God would speak in a new tongue, Greek, instead of the previously sacred tongue of Hebrew. Due to Jewish unfaithfulness, God moved His Spirit over into the Gentiles, though a small remnant of Israel, the Jews, remained true to Christ. One day, God will restore Israel and the Jews and all Israel will be saved (Romans 11). Then Israel will be blessed again in an even better way than she was blessed in OT days.
Does the KJV say that the KJV is inspired by God? Did the KJV translators believe that their work was inspired by God? No. Can a book attest to itself, or must we rely on men to tell us it's inspired? And, how can they prove that it is? Unless they are inspired , too. No. No English version of the Bible is as inspired or God-breathed as the Greek originals. Only the NT is God's word in an unequivocal sense; the other Bibles in English, Latin, Armenian, Russian, Slavonic, French, Spanish, etc. are all HUMAN TRANSLATIONS OF GOD'S WORD, and THEREFORE SUBJECT TO HUMAN LIMITATIONS AND ERRORS. In Erie PA Scott R. Harrington
