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This thread may be fun. I hope some will enjoy the scriptural disclosures from Jesus and the Apostles.
We know quite a bit about The Law(s), in the scriptures, meaning any of them, really. Breaking them down and dividing them into categories has it's place, but the essence of any law is this:
Command and penalty for disobedience. So, where we see "any" command, we should also perceive that there is also a penalty for disobedience. That is the essence of any particular law. We see the command/penalty in the first law in the Garden, given to Adam. Do not eat, or else, death, basically. We also see the same principle deployed in many other places, reaping what we sow being given in many places as other examples.
In this particular thread, I'd like to show some aspects of the law that have been relatively unattended to, by most, but it should become blatantly obvious as we go along the scriptural trails, that being this fact:
The Law(s) were not given to only man. And my opener for this principle will be from Paul's scripture, showing us that the law is for the lawless and for sinners:
1 Timothy 1:9
Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
I bolded and underscored the emphasis I'd like to observe in this thread. That being, that the law is made for the lawless disobedient sinners. This is a fairly simple principle.
And the first witness from the scriptures, that I would trot out for view in this matter is the first man, Adam. Why? Because the first law, in brief, "do not eat or else death" was laid upon Adam before we have any signs whatsoever that Adam was a lawless disobedient sinner. If anyone can prove otherwise, lol. There is ZERO external proof that Adam, prior to the delivery of the first law was a lawless disobedient sinner. If anything, we have directly contradictory evidence that he was not, because scriptures tell us that Adam was in fact God's son in Luke 3:38.
Why then, did God lay the law upon Adam, IF the law was made for lawless disobedient sinners? What did God know and see in that that we are not seeing?
So, I'd like examine a part of the law to lawless disobedient sinners that goes largely unattended by most handlers of the law. And for that, I'll trot out the second witnesses.
Jesus, in John 8:44, tells us quite clearly about Satan, the devil:
John 8:44
Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
Might we see in this that the devil, Satan, is a lawless disobedient sinner? I might certainly expect so!
Do we know that the devil is a sinner? Yes, of course we do, not only from Jesus, above, but also here, from John the Apostle:
1 John 3:8
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
These are the opening observations of this thread. In the next, I'll examine how this relates to the first law, with Adam, and Satan, the devil's role in the delivery of that first law.
That law was not to Adam, but the lawless disobedient sinner that few, if any, even perceive.
We know quite a bit about The Law(s), in the scriptures, meaning any of them, really. Breaking them down and dividing them into categories has it's place, but the essence of any law is this:
Command and penalty for disobedience. So, where we see "any" command, we should also perceive that there is also a penalty for disobedience. That is the essence of any particular law. We see the command/penalty in the first law in the Garden, given to Adam. Do not eat, or else, death, basically. We also see the same principle deployed in many other places, reaping what we sow being given in many places as other examples.
In this particular thread, I'd like to show some aspects of the law that have been relatively unattended to, by most, but it should become blatantly obvious as we go along the scriptural trails, that being this fact:
The Law(s) were not given to only man. And my opener for this principle will be from Paul's scripture, showing us that the law is for the lawless and for sinners:
1 Timothy 1:9
Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
I bolded and underscored the emphasis I'd like to observe in this thread. That being, that the law is made for the lawless disobedient sinners. This is a fairly simple principle.
And the first witness from the scriptures, that I would trot out for view in this matter is the first man, Adam. Why? Because the first law, in brief, "do not eat or else death" was laid upon Adam before we have any signs whatsoever that Adam was a lawless disobedient sinner. If anyone can prove otherwise, lol. There is ZERO external proof that Adam, prior to the delivery of the first law was a lawless disobedient sinner. If anything, we have directly contradictory evidence that he was not, because scriptures tell us that Adam was in fact God's son in Luke 3:38.
Why then, did God lay the law upon Adam, IF the law was made for lawless disobedient sinners? What did God know and see in that that we are not seeing?
So, I'd like examine a part of the law to lawless disobedient sinners that goes largely unattended by most handlers of the law. And for that, I'll trot out the second witnesses.
Jesus, in John 8:44, tells us quite clearly about Satan, the devil:
John 8:44
Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
Might we see in this that the devil, Satan, is a lawless disobedient sinner? I might certainly expect so!
Do we know that the devil is a sinner? Yes, of course we do, not only from Jesus, above, but also here, from John the Apostle:
1 John 3:8
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
These are the opening observations of this thread. In the next, I'll examine how this relates to the first law, with Adam, and Satan, the devil's role in the delivery of that first law.
That law was not to Adam, but the lawless disobedient sinner that few, if any, even perceive.