Loser For Jesus said:
Mat 24:27-31 For as lightning that comes from the east is visible even in the west, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. 28 Wherever there is a carcass, there the vultures will gather. 29 "Immediately after the distress of those days "'the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from the sky, and the heavenly bodies will be shaken.' 30 "At that time the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and all the nations of the earth will mourn. They will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky, with power and great glory. 31 And he will send his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other.Again, the "Rapture" seems to be very clearly linked with the return of Jesus and with the "trumpet call."So will Jesus return before the Tribulation? Or will He have a third coming after His second coming?
I'd like to tie this all together by quoting Mt 24:34.... This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled."
"This generation" refers to the generation then living at the time Jesus spoke these words.
These words that Jesus spoke were meant for those who heard the message first some two thousand years ago. To take the words of Jesus and remove them from it's historical setting and context is not using proper biblical hermeneutics. Was Jesus telling them something that wasn't meant for them in their lifetime? Why would He tell them about these events if they were only meant for some generation thousands or years into the future? He wasn't teaching them about human flesh coming out of their graves either. (the so-called rapture)
Jesus to His twelve disciples (who were standing in front of Jesus):
Matthew 16:27-28, "For the Son of man is about to come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works. Verily I say unto you, There are some of those standing here, who in no wise shall taste of death, until they have seen the Son of man coming in his kingdom."
Mark 8:38 - 9:1, "…when he cometh in the glory of his Father with the holy angels....there are some of those standing here, who in no wise shall taste of death, until they see the kingdom of God having come in power. "
Luke 9:26-27, "... when he shall come in his own glory, and in his Father's, and of the holy angels…there are some of those standing here, who in no wise shall taste of death, until they have seen the kingdom of God. "
Notice how Jesus said that some of his disciples, who were standing right there in front of him, would not physically die by the time He came with his angels to reward every man according to his works (Revelation 22:12). John was one of these men who lived to see it...as you can see by the following verse...
Jesus to Peter:
John 21:22-23, "...If I (Jesus) desire him (John) to abide till I come, what is that to thee?" [John was one of the twelve apostles who was never martyred, and abided on earth well after 70AD. Therefore, John did abide until Christ came in 70AD, just like Jesus desired him to!]
Everywhere the scripture talks about the Lord's coming it gives us a time statement. The New Testament saints fully expected the Lord to come in their lifetime. How could we possibly miss this? Yet the majority of believers today, some two thousand years later, are still saying that the Lord will return soon. Can the same event be imminent at two different periods of time separated by two thousand years?