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............................ I'm sorry you take that approach. Why should I not believe that you may be mistaken? Why take 'offense'? Maybe you posted under the name of mcgyver (who still didn't address the grammar I posted). Maybe you were discussing it with someone else? The point is...

I found a discussion with “mcgyver” about two years ago. But I didn’t find where he actually acknowledged the grammar part of my study. That is, he did not examine my actual work of comparing every proper example of John’s constructions which were truly parallel to John 1:1c and how they were...

Doulos, please don't take this wrong, but unless I can find it or see it here (and since I honestly don't remember anyone actually discussing what I have written about my study of the grammar of John 1:1c), I must stand by my statement: "As is usual it appears no one will actually discuss my...

Thank you for your response, Doulos! I'm sorry, but I don't remember your responses to my request for discussion concerning my study of the grammar of John 1:1c. I admit that my poor old memory is worse than ever, but I even tried to find your posts concerning this on this site, but failed...

I would appreciate any honest investigation of the grammar of John 1:1c as presented in the first five lessons presented above (replies #21-27). I believe I have covered all the bases for an honest and complete investigation of John's (and the other Gospel writers) use of all other...

These are standard abbreviations for Good News Bible; Modern Language Bible; New American Bible; Living Bible; Moffatt’s translation; An American Translation; New Life Version; Bible in Basic English; Steven Byington’s translation (The Bible in Living English); Rotherham’s translation (The...

I am sorry if one of my posts (removed above) has caused anyone offense. The paragraph is my own. The source of the beginning quote is the Revised Standard Version. I have looked up all the other references in that paragraph including the ASV footnote.

John 17:11 can be interpreted in more than one way. That is why there are differing translations of it: And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are. -...

John 17:11 can be interpreted in more than one way. That is why there are differing translations of it: And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are. -...

I believe my 2 posts above are clear enough. Jesus is never clearly called YHWH. The Father is.

YHWH is clearly called the Father in a number of Israelite personal names such as Abijah. Scripture clearly states that YHWH is the Father. For example, Is. 64:8: "But now, O Jehovah, thou art our Father; we are the clay, and thou our potter; and we all are the work of thy hand." - ASV. But...

I would if scripture actually said it. It does not.

................................. Excerpts from my 1Jn57 study: 1 John 5:7 (KJV text) Dr. William Barclay : “The facts are as follows. First, it does not occur in any Greek manuscript earlier than the 14th century. The great manuscripts belong to the 3rd and 4th centuries [most scholars date...

With very little effort one can find that this verse in the KJV is spurious! Most Bible translations omit it. Most recognized Trinitarian scholars reject it on the grounds that it simply is not in the ancient manuscripts nor in the writings of the early Church fathers...

.................................. From my personal study of Zech. 12:10: Zechariah 12:10 YHWH speaks: “...they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son” - Zech. 12:10, KJV; cf. NKJV, NIV, NASB, NEB, REB, ASV, AB, KJIIV, ETRV...

From my personal study of 1 Tim. 3:16: 1 Tim. 3:16 (“God was manifest in the flesh”) As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.” Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which...

YHWH and the Christ. Matt. 22:41-45 and Acts 2:32-36.

The Hebrew word elohim can mean 'gods' (numerical plural) or "God" (plural of majesty). It can even be used for a single pagan god at times. As for Ps. 110:1 it says 'YHWH (not elohim) said to adonai (not elohim)...' YHWH may be transliterated as 'Yahweh,' 'Jehovah,' or, possibly more...

I understand that I won't be allowed to post what I believe to be an honest reply to the discussion question, 'Is the Trinity a Lie?'. But what I don't understand is why have the moderators even allowed such a discussion question? It obviously asks for discussion pro and con, but as I...

That's good, Michael. I've reached an age where even cutting and pasting from my own files is sometimes a challenge. If you would like to see the mechanics of my examination of John 1:1c, see the DEF study (part 3, Appendix and Part 4, end note #5)