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Please see Lesson A (after the word ‘First’). John modifies both ‘Lord’ and ‘God’ with a prepositional phrase (a genitive noun): ὁ κύριος μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου. I have another study for John 20:28 and if you will only start another discussion, I will share some of it. As for now I wish to discuss...

I have a lengthy study on this also. If you wish to start another discussion on I AM, please do so. For now I want to discuss the Seven (five?) Rules for John 1:1c.

See the last half of Lesson C through the end of Lesson E above. When examples parallel to John 1:1c are used, Colwell’s rule, as often used, fails. That is, when we find an unmodified nominative count noun (explained in Lesson A) used as a predicate noun, such as theos in John 1:1c, found in...

I guess you haven't read the 5 lessons above, either. Theos without modifiers in John's writings means "a god" just as anthropos without modifiers means "a man" and prophetes without modifiers means "a prophet," etc. John always used ho theos ('the god') when intending "God."

Free, I'm saddened that you won't respond to my simple request (and my questioning of your own statement that my original NT Greek study has been discussed ad nauseam). It seems similar to my objection to a statement of yours concerning the Greek verb for 'was' in John 1:1 some time back. I...

Free, If you can't back up your own statement concerning my personal study of the grammar ("As usual"? It's been discussed ad nauseam [sic] in other threads.) nor are able to refute with specifics what I have presented in the five lessons above, why not just admit it? Your 'context' insistence...

No one has ever discussed it with me. If you have really seen answers to my study of the grammar/usage of John 1:1, please submit some of them! Or if that is not possible, please provide your own answers to my study of the GRAMMAR/SYNTAX of the first five lessons.

The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan, 1986, Vol. 3, p. 187 (also among the many sources listed in Lesson B) states: “The reason why judges are called ‘gods’ in Ps. 82 is that they have the office of administering God’s judgment as ‘sons of the Most High’. …. On...

No one has ever discussed it with me. If you have really seen answers to my study of the grammar/usage of John 1:1, please submit some of them! As for the polytheism silliness, you are completely ignoring Lesson B and its lengthy list of scholars who admit that 'a god/gods' are used in...

I will pause here and see if there are questions concerning A - E above before continuing. As is usual it appears no one will actually discuss my actual study of John's usage/grammar concerning John 1:1c.

As so often happens, people like to reply to someone's post without actually reading (or understanding) much of it. If Free read part B above, it doesn't show.

E. John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): The above posts show that word order (predicate noun before the verb as found in the NT Greek of John 1:1c) does not change the meaning to an understood article (“the”) as Colwell’s Rule suggests or some nebulous ‘qualitative’ meaning as some other trinitarian...

D. John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): It’s been many years since I looked up all the clauses in John’s writing which had predicate nouns (also called predicate nominatives). Then I made a list of all of them which are parallel to John 1:1c (predicate noun coming before the verb). I didn’t have a...

C. John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): But, you may ask, Isn’t there a significance to the reversed word order in the Greek (‘god was the word’) which is, in English, ‘the word was god.’? If you will examine a good NT interlinear, you will find that word order is basically meaningless. NT Greek...

B. John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): The next step in finding John’s intended meaning of John 1:1c is to look up the meanings of theos in a good NT lexicon. Numerous Trinitarian scholars [see footnote] admit that this word was also used for angels, kings, and God-appointed men such as judges in...

Seven Lessons for determining the correct translation of John 1:1c (The first 5 lessons [A-E] concern the actual NT Greek grammar used by John) A. John 1:1 in NT Greek: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος En arche en ho logos and ho logos en pros ton...

I have spent many years studying John 1:1c alone. I would love to show you how I know that the most likely translation of it should be "And the Word was a god." However, I'm likely to be banned again for presenting my personal study on this subject. Perhaps I have misinterpreted the...

I have spent many years studying John 1:1c alone. I would love to show you how I know that the most likely translation of it should be "And the Word was a god." However, I'm likely to be banned again for presenting my personal study on this subject.

We should be able to see that Westcott and Hort are not the villains here. So let’s examine the important change the KJV translators made in the OT. Carefully read the following: Psalm 83:18 in the KJV tells us what the only personal name of God is: "18 That men may know that thou, whose name...

More important for KJV fanatics should be the inclusion of the information added in the KJV (and those following its tradition) at 1 John 5:7-8. 1　John 5:7 - NAS – For there are three that testify: 1　John 5:7 - UBS text – οτι τρεις εισιν (5719) οι μαρτυρουντες (5723) 1　John 5:8 - NAS – the...