What do you guys think of this verse? I looked up its translations on this site; all four appear to say the same thing, with the exception of the Authorized King James Version - this version I am not certain exactly what it pertains to. But I have a feeling that the meaning of the verse, in the proper context, simply means - as it overtly says - that no food is to be rejected because everything God created is good. But does this contradict Genesis 1:29 and Genesis 3:22? Technically, according to the latter two verses, God instructed Adam and Eve to eat only plant foods (fruits and vegetables). So I am quite perplexed as to which verse takes precedence over the other. Does the New Testament preside over the Old Testament? The OT, after all, is said to be the Word of God. But the NT seems to be giving a quite different message. The apostle John wrote that Christ is the Word of God. So does the Word take priority over the Word? Anyway, sorry for the verbiage. Going back to my original question, what do you guys think?