Re: Errors in King James Bible
Well, Mr. Bunyan, I disagree. The issue is Christ reigning over the house of Jacob, because the Lord God, who is the Sovereign Ruler over all things, shall give unto him the throne of his father David. It is the Lord God's to give; and when Christ, after subduing all enemies (in the whole universe), turns over the kingdom to God the Father that God may be all in all. The kingdom then never ends.
Quote: Luke 1:32,33, KJV, "He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end."
To me, the antescendant of "his" is the Lord God, who gives the rule to Jesus as Messiah.
NEW VERSES TO CONTRAST:
Matt. 24:3 reads, "..Tell us when shall these things be? and what (shall be) the sign of thy coming and of the end of the world?"
See also: Matt. 13:39,40; 24:3; 28:20.
End of the world? Right? What does that mean to you? The end of everything? Just the earth? Just mankind? Just unrighteous humanity?
Based upon the above verses "The end of the world!" has become a big subject again. But, it should read "The end of the age."
NOW...contrast "the end of the world" with Eph. 3:21 "Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end."
BOTH CAN'T BE RIGHT! And look at the above verse; it says "throughout all ages"...IMAGINE! "ages" is from "aionias", the same word in Luke that they wouldn't translate "ages", but did here in Eph 3:21. I wonder how that happened? Do you think God gave the translators special directions to ignore the Greek in one place, yet not ignore it in another? Or did they not want to vary from the three English Versions they referred to?
Also, Isa. 45:17 reads, "...ye shall not be ashamed nor confounded world without end." Another place of contradiction.
Bick
AVBunyan said:
Well, Mr. Bunyan, I disagree. The issue is Christ reigning over the house of Jacob, because the Lord God, who is the Sovereign Ruler over all things, shall give unto him the throne of his father David. It is the Lord God's to give; and when Christ, after subduing all enemies (in the whole universe), turns over the kingdom to God the Father that God may be all in all. The kingdom then never ends.
Quote: Luke 1:32,33, KJV, "He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end."
To me, the antescendant of "his" is the Lord God, who gives the rule to Jesus as Messiah.
NEW VERSES TO CONTRAST:
Matt. 24:3 reads, "..Tell us when shall these things be? and what (shall be) the sign of thy coming and of the end of the world?"
See also: Matt. 13:39,40; 24:3; 28:20.
End of the world? Right? What does that mean to you? The end of everything? Just the earth? Just mankind? Just unrighteous humanity?
Based upon the above verses "The end of the world!" has become a big subject again. But, it should read "The end of the age."
NOW...contrast "the end of the world" with Eph. 3:21 "Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end."
BOTH CAN'T BE RIGHT! And look at the above verse; it says "throughout all ages"...IMAGINE! "ages" is from "aionias", the same word in Luke that they wouldn't translate "ages", but did here in Eph 3:21. I wonder how that happened? Do you think God gave the translators special directions to ignore the Greek in one place, yet not ignore it in another? Or did they not want to vary from the three English Versions they referred to?
Also, Isa. 45:17 reads, "...ye shall not be ashamed nor confounded world without end." Another place of contradiction.
Bick