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Communion

n2thelight

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Curiosity question

I asked this question once but didn't get an answer,so here goes again.......


Do preterist take part in Communion?
 
Guess I won't get an answer this time either,so I will say the answer has to be no............
 
Well, as the preterist minority here I have been quite busy lately - plus I was able to land a part-time job at the health clinic.(yay!)

As far as taking Communion past the Lord's Coming- I know I do simply bc Jesus said to "do this in remembrance of Me."
As far as any time limits on the "body & blood" elements- I will refer you to the general preterist pov:

"Our point is that in I Corinthians 11:26 when Paul told the Corinthians "ye do shew forth the Lord's death until he come," that it was simply another example of inspired testimony that the Lord would return in the generation then living! If this is not the meaning of the words and text then ask yourself this question: If the Lord had wanted to tell the Corinthians they would take of the Supper until he returned how better could it have been expressed than it is already in verse 26?
A further short thought on "until." It need not be thought that the word is always used in the sense of "up to the point of and not after." Very often in scripture the word is used in a transitional sense without the sense of termination.
In Matthew 11:12 Jesus said the kingdom had suffered violence "until now." Did the kingdom suffer no violence after the days of John the Baptist? In verse 13 of the same text Jesus said the "Law and prophets were until John;" did the law pass away when John came? In Romans 5:13 inspiration says sin was in the world "until the law." Now was there no more sin after the Old Law came? Paul told Timothy "until I come give attendance to reading, exhortation, to doctrine," I Timothy 4:13. Was Timothy to stop the public reading of scriptures and doctrinal preaching when Paul came? Incidentally the correspondence of I Timothy 4 and the language of I Corinthians 11:26 is remarkable.
These few examples should demonstrate that we need not necessarily understand the word "until" in I Corinthians 11 as indicating an end to the institution of the Lord's Supper."


Here is the entire article:Until He Comes | eschatology.org
 
Well, as the preterist minority here I have been quite busy lately - plus I was able to land a part-time job at the health clinic.(yay!)

As far as taking Communion past the Lord's Coming- I know I do simply bc Jesus said to "do this in remembrance of Me."
As far as any time limits on the "body & blood" elements- I will refer you to the general preterist pov:

"Our point is that in I Corinthians 11:26 when Paul told the Corinthians "ye do shew forth the Lord's death until he come," that it was simply another example of inspired testimony that the Lord would return in the generation then living! If this is not the meaning of the words and text then ask yourself this question: If the Lord had wanted to tell the Corinthians they would take of the Supper until he returned how better could it have been expressed than it is already in verse 26?
A further short thought on "until." It need not be thought that the word is always used in the sense of "up to the point of and not after." Very often in scripture the word is used in a transitional sense without the sense of termination.
In Matthew 11:12 Jesus said the kingdom had suffered violence "until now." Did the kingdom suffer no violence after the days of John the Baptist? In verse 13 of the same text Jesus said the "Law and prophets were until John;" did the law pass away when John came? In Romans 5:13 inspiration says sin was in the world "until the law." Now was there no more sin after the Old Law came? Paul told Timothy "until I come give attendance to reading, exhortation, to doctrine," I Timothy 4:13. Was Timothy to stop the public reading of scriptures and doctrinal preaching when Paul came? Incidentally the correspondence of I Timothy 4 and the language of I Corinthians 11:26 is remarkable.
These few examples should demonstrate that we need not necessarily understand the word "until" in I Corinthians 11 as indicating an end to the institution of the Lord's Supper."


Here is the entire article:Until He Comes | eschatology.org

Congrates on the Job

Now,I still say communion would not be necessary if Christ had returned already,the play on the word until,is worst,(well not that bad)than the catholic's who maintain that Mary never had sex.....

There is nothing in the text that does not sugest that the word simply means what it says......Until........
 
Summary
I have delineated my reasons for believing the Supper is to be taken today even though I believe Jesus returned in 70 AD. The Supper today is to be taken not in anticipation but in realization in the predicted "new" manner. The kingdom has fully come and we today dwell in it.

Those who contend the Supper must cease if Jesus returned in 70 A.D. have ignored the contextual statements of I Corinthians 11. They have ignored Paul's personal use of "you;" they have ignored the significance of the Supper being taken by the Corinthians "until he come;" and imposed a singular meaning on "until" which is not contextually necessary.
For these reasons we believe the Supper was not to cease at the Lord's return. It is to be taken in appreciation of his accomplished work.
"Let us therefore celebrate the feast...with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth." I Cor.5:8.


Until He comes means exactly what it says.......Will we still take communion when we die and go to heaven,I don't think so......word play won't work with me on this....
 
Until He comes means exactly what it says.......Will we still take communion when we die and go to heaven,I don't think so......word play won't work with me on this....

Who said we would? Christ coming again in the Corinthians day has nothing to do with anyone dying!

Suit yourself. Preterists can easily understand my answer-

Read the parts that help understand the answer about this Communion- not the secondary ones as excuses for resisting preterism!

From the link-

Present/Coming Kingdom
That the church/kingdom was set up on Pentecost we deny not. The church was present then and afterwards; but the kingdom was still future also!

In Matthew 16:27-28 Immanuel promised to come in his Father's glory, with the angels, to judge the world. He then stated emphatically that some then living would not die until they had seen Him coming in the kingdom. This did not happen on Pentecost! This then is a reference to a future coming of the kingdom subsequent to its establishment on Pentecost.
Further, in Luke 21:31 our Master looked forward to the signs preceding the fall of the Jewish Theocracy and said, "...when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the kingdom of God is nigh at hand." Those "things" presage an event that did not happen until thirty-seven years after Pentecost; yet, they were portents of the soon to come kingdom! So the kingdom (in whatever sense Jesus was referring to it) would not have fully arrived until A.D.70.
Could it not be that while the church ate the Supper in a new, yet unperfected way, in the present yet unperfected kingdom, that when the time of the perfection arrived they ate the perfected Supper in the perfected kingdom?
I suggest this is the case. Thus, when Paul in I Corinthians 11:26 said they were to show forth the Lord's death "till he come," he was eagerly looking forward, not to the cessation but to the consummation of the Supper.
The Lord's return, most assuredly expected in the lifetime of the Corinthians (cf. I Corinthians 1:4-8; 7:29-31; 13:8-13,) was not so much for the purpose of destroying the old Levitical system as it was for fulfilling it and bringing to completion the Scheme of Redemption. As the early church communed with the Lord in his Supper (I Corinthians 10:16-21), they remembered his death and sufferings. They eagerly longed for his return when the Feast would not only be a remembrance of the past, but a celebration with Him in a completely established and triumphant Kingdom. After Jesus came in A.D.70 the Supper could finally be taken in the perfected "newness" of which he spoke.
Today as children of God we also participate in the Supper. It is not in anticipation of a coming salvation, but in realization of an accomplished salvation through the suffering of our Lord. The Supper was not to cease at Jesus' return. It was and is to be taken in appreciation of his accomplished work.
 
Today as children of God we also participate in the Supper. It is not in anticipation of a coming salvation, but in realization of an accomplished salvation through the suffering of our Lord. The Supper was not to cease at Jesus' return. It was and is to be taken in appreciation of his accomplished work.

We already know why we take it,the point is why you still do,if He has returned already
 
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