yes it matters who the context of the original writing is about. When there is a prophecy about someone then the entire context of the prophecy needs to apply to the person in question.
It does, but not in the sense you think it does.
In Psalm 45, the context isn't originally about Jesus.
Of course it isn't, but that isn't relevant.
God didn't speak through the Son in the past, but rather through the prophets. God didn't speak through the Son until "these last days." The universe was not created in the "last days." The universe was created at the beginning when God spoke alone. What was created by speaking through the Son in these "last days" is the ages, i.e., the church age.
As the God-man, God incarnate, Jesus spoke what the Father wanted him to speak concerning truth and salvation. You might also want to consider that Peter says the OT spoke by the Spirit of Christ.
1Pe 1:11 inquiring what person or time the Spirit of Christ in them was indicating when he predicted the sufferings of Christ and the subsequent glories. (ESV)
Yet, he also says:
2Pe 1:21 For no prophecy was ever produced by the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit. (ESV)
Yes, all of scripture agrees when it is rightly divided. Now I am doing that.
That is actually the very thing you are not even close to doing.
John 1:1-3 also refers to the beginning of the church.
No, it absolutely does not. This is the exact opposite of rightly diving the word of truth. It is only about who the Word is. He has absolute existence (having been in existence when the beginning began), was in an intimate, interpersonal relationship with God, and was God in nature. All of that is then supported by John saying that "All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made" (ESV). That is the entire point of those verses and John's whole prologue.
John 1:1-3 closely parallels 1 John 1:1-3. The idea being conveyed is that God created the Jesus out of the logos. God had set plans and foreknowledge and God manifested it.
The text states things quite plainly and there is simply no way to get that meaning from the text. John simply
On the one hand, it's not surprising you keep repeating this rebutted argument. On the other, it isn't, since you have continually ignored the rebuttal. Here it is again:
First,
if you want the verse to say that "one God, the Father" precludes Jesus from being God,
then it necessarily follows that "one Lord, Jesus Christ" precludes the Father from being Lord. The logic
demands that the Father can never be Lord
if Jesus can never be God. There is simply no way around it. Yet that would contradict what Paul writes in many passages, such as1 Tim. 6:15. It would also contradict numerous other passages in the NT, such as Luke 10:21.
Second,
if "of whom are all things" speaks of the Father's absolute existence and his nature as God,
then it necessarily follows that "by whom are all things" speaks of the Son's absolute existence and nature as God. We
cannot say that in relation to the Father "all things" means absolutely everything that has come into existence but that it means something different in relation to the Son. And this is confirmed in John 1:1-3, Col 1:16-17, Heb 1:2, 6, 10-12.
So, simple, sound logic leads to the
only conclusion that Jesus, or rather the Son, is also God in nature, being of the same substance as the Father. There never was a time when the Son did not exist. Yet, he clearly is distinct from the Father and is not a separate God.
Begin with Colossians 1:15. All things do not come from the "image of God" but rather they come from God Himself. This was all completed at the cross. This passage refers to a specific context, the church.
This is another case of not rightly dividing Scripture. It seems to me that you truly don't understand how context works. Someone else has already explained your error in this passage:
Col 1:13 He has delivered us from the domain of darkness and transferred us to the kingdom of his beloved Son,
Col 1:14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
Col 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
Col 1:16 For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together.
Col 1:18 And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent.
Col 1:19 For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell,
Col 1:20 and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross.
Col 1:21 And you, who once were alienated and hostile in mind, doing evil deeds,
Col 1:22 he has now reconciled in his body of flesh by his death, in order to present you holy and blameless and above reproach before him, (ESV)
All of these verses introduce us to who the Son is and what he has done. More specifically, they show his lordship over creation and redemption. Verses 16-17 explain what is meant in verse 15. So, given that Paul again says that everything that has been created was created through the Son, the
only logical conclusion is that the Son
cannot have been created. Jesus is the only begotten (unique) Son and so has preeminence over all creation. At not point does Paul say that the Son is created, nor could he, as that would contradict the very clear meaning of verse 16-17, in addition to what Paul says elsewhere.
There is simply no way to conclude that this was "all completed at the cross." Verses 15-17 are telling us just who the person is who died at the cross for our salvation. Notice all the "Fors" and "Ands." Those preclude reading back into verses 16 and 17 that they are referring to the cross.
Paul is exaggerating in this chapter.
Exaggerating? There is simply no reason to believe that, especially when it agrees with what he says elsewhere, in addition to agreeing with John and the writer of Hebrews.
For example, in Colossians 1:23 do you believe the gospel had already been preached to every human on earth? In order for there to be consistency you must hold to the position that Colossians 1:23 is also literal.
23if indeed you continue in your faith, established and firm, not moved from the hope o
f the gospel you heard, which has been proclaimed to every creature under heaven, and of which I, Paul, have become a servant.
Colossians 1:23 doesn't say "every human" or "every creature." It says "in all creation," which could be referring to "in the presence of every creature" (The Expositor's Greek Testament) meaning more specifically both Jews and Gentiles. And so, it likely is a repeat of what Paul says in verse 6:
Col 1:5 because of the hope laid up for you in heaven. Of this you have heard before in the word of the truth,
the gospel,
Col 1:6
which has come to you, as indeed in the whole world it is bearing fruit and increasing—as it also does among you, since the day you heard it and understood the grace of God in truth, (ESV)
The gospel was being preached and spreading all over their known world, which is what Jesus commissioned them to do. The first 14 verses are important for understand what Paul writes in verses 15-23.
Yes, it is
exactly what is happening. If not, then the quote by the writer of Hebrews is utterly meaningless.
Again, in Heb 1:6, the quote is from Psalm 97:7 in the Septuagint, which is a passage about Yahweh:
Psa 97:1
The LORD reigns, let the earth rejoice; let the many coastlands be glad!
Psa 97:2 Clouds and thick darkness are all around him; righteousness and justice are the foundation of his throne.
Psa 97:3 Fire goes before him and burns up his adversaries all around.
Psa 97:4 His lightnings light up the world; the earth sees and trembles.
Psa 97:5 The mountains melt like wax before
the LORD, before the Lord of all the earth.
Psa 97:6 The heavens proclaim his righteousness, and all the peoples see his glory.
Psa 97:7 All worshipers of images are put to shame, who make their boast in worthless idols;
worship him, all you gods! (ESV)
So, it is an OT passage about Yahweh being applied to the Son, by God.
chaos currently. In the family structure, the parents are supposed to have a level of respect and reverence. A huge majority of children currently have chucked that out the window and make themselves equal. Jesus always made it a point he came to do the Father's will. He then, disperses the Father's inheritance to the children of God because he is the firstborn over creation. The Father appointed him Executor over the Will. (legal document) Very simple to understand actually. 
