A
AHIMSA
Guest
This is an offshoot from another thread:
Many historians and scholars today believe that Jesus was originally a disciple and member of the Baptist's movement. There are very probable grounds for asserting this.
Now most here will use the gospels as their evidence. However the gospels all differ on their portrait of John the Baptist. When we investigate these differences, we see that there is a substantial "embarassment" surrounding the presence of John and that its more than a "difference of perspective.
Firstly, it should be noted that both Jesus and John had problems with the pharisees, both preached a message of repentance in the face of the coming Kingdom of God and their activities both lead to execution.
Beginning with the gospel of Mark. We need to imagine, for a brief moment, that Mark is the only gospel and that we dont have any other gospels. In this gospel Jesus is baptized by John, no questions asked. John does not recognize Jesus as the Christ, and only Jesus sees the sign from heaven. In this gospel, Jesus stands in line waiting to be baptized by a prophet that preaches repetence in baptism and the coming of God's kingdom, just as though he were a sinner like everyone else. Jesus obviously has a profound spiritual experience instigated by the baptism and retreats into the desert. Now, baptism by John was the sign that a person was his follower and that they believed in his message. Note, significantly, that Jesus only begins his ministry after John has been placed in prison...as though he felt he was continuing the message in John's name.
Now there are obvious questions why the gospel writers would not want Jesus to be a follower of John the Baptist. It makes Jesus look smaller if he was, at some point, following someone. Anything that makes Jesus looks secondary is problematic to many believers. Mark, though not overtly saying Jesus followed John, certainly gives us a hint.
Many Christians had a problem with Jesus being baptized by John. People are baptized by their spiritual superiors and teachers. They started to wonder why Jesus was baptized and not the other way around, why wasn't Jesus, the Messiah, baptizing John! This is exactly how Matthew approaches the issue. Being the gospel written after Mark, he changes Mark's baptismal account which makes Jesus look subordinate. In Mattew, contrary to Mark, John knows Jesus is the Christ and says "why is it not you baptising me?". This is clearly an addition to the matieral.
Luke further subordinates John's status, in Luke, the third gospel written, John becomes the cousin of Jesus, the only gospel that records this.
Lastly, when we turn to the gospel of John, Jesus' baptism is not even narrated. The Baptist, whose speaking style is identical to the author of the gospel, proclaims Jesus the Lamb of God in a language of light verses darkness and encourages his followers to follow Jesus.
The obvious question that arises is, if John knew Jesus was the Christ when he baptized him, why did he later send disciples of his to Jesus to question him if he was indeed the Christ!? It doesn't make sense. He wouldn't need to ask the question if he knew Jesus was the Christ when he baptized him. If we stick to the model of "the baptismal embarassment" it is easily explained. The gospel authors were trying to minimize the presence of the Baptist by changing and eventually not even narrating Jesus's baptism.
Again, note that in the synoptics, Jesus only begins his ministry after his baptism and after John is placed in prison. He is initiated into John's movement, then after John is imprisoned, he carries on John's mission before it is transformed by his own unique contributions and ideas.
Of course, everyone will say each gospel is trying to show a "different perspective". These differences, however, are far too easily explained by the "baptismal embarassment" model. It explains each alteration of the material by the authors after Mark. Secondly, the differences are not simply different, but evolutionary in nature. John is successively minimalized by each successive author. Only the baptismal model explains this.
If Jesus wasn't initially a disciple of John, then why are the authors threatened by his presence? Why was Jesus baptized by John at all? Why did the authors feel the need to rework this material three times until John does little more than proclaim his inferiority, encourage his followers to follow Jesus and proclaim him the Lamb of God (when clearly, he didnt know Jesus was the Christ until his disciples asked him)?
Many historians and scholars today believe that Jesus was originally a disciple and member of the Baptist's movement. There are very probable grounds for asserting this.
Now most here will use the gospels as their evidence. However the gospels all differ on their portrait of John the Baptist. When we investigate these differences, we see that there is a substantial "embarassment" surrounding the presence of John and that its more than a "difference of perspective.
Firstly, it should be noted that both Jesus and John had problems with the pharisees, both preached a message of repentance in the face of the coming Kingdom of God and their activities both lead to execution.
Beginning with the gospel of Mark. We need to imagine, for a brief moment, that Mark is the only gospel and that we dont have any other gospels. In this gospel Jesus is baptized by John, no questions asked. John does not recognize Jesus as the Christ, and only Jesus sees the sign from heaven. In this gospel, Jesus stands in line waiting to be baptized by a prophet that preaches repetence in baptism and the coming of God's kingdom, just as though he were a sinner like everyone else. Jesus obviously has a profound spiritual experience instigated by the baptism and retreats into the desert. Now, baptism by John was the sign that a person was his follower and that they believed in his message. Note, significantly, that Jesus only begins his ministry after John has been placed in prison...as though he felt he was continuing the message in John's name.
Now there are obvious questions why the gospel writers would not want Jesus to be a follower of John the Baptist. It makes Jesus look smaller if he was, at some point, following someone. Anything that makes Jesus looks secondary is problematic to many believers. Mark, though not overtly saying Jesus followed John, certainly gives us a hint.
Many Christians had a problem with Jesus being baptized by John. People are baptized by their spiritual superiors and teachers. They started to wonder why Jesus was baptized and not the other way around, why wasn't Jesus, the Messiah, baptizing John! This is exactly how Matthew approaches the issue. Being the gospel written after Mark, he changes Mark's baptismal account which makes Jesus look subordinate. In Mattew, contrary to Mark, John knows Jesus is the Christ and says "why is it not you baptising me?". This is clearly an addition to the matieral.
Luke further subordinates John's status, in Luke, the third gospel written, John becomes the cousin of Jesus, the only gospel that records this.
Lastly, when we turn to the gospel of John, Jesus' baptism is not even narrated. The Baptist, whose speaking style is identical to the author of the gospel, proclaims Jesus the Lamb of God in a language of light verses darkness and encourages his followers to follow Jesus.
The obvious question that arises is, if John knew Jesus was the Christ when he baptized him, why did he later send disciples of his to Jesus to question him if he was indeed the Christ!? It doesn't make sense. He wouldn't need to ask the question if he knew Jesus was the Christ when he baptized him. If we stick to the model of "the baptismal embarassment" it is easily explained. The gospel authors were trying to minimize the presence of the Baptist by changing and eventually not even narrating Jesus's baptism.
Again, note that in the synoptics, Jesus only begins his ministry after his baptism and after John is placed in prison. He is initiated into John's movement, then after John is imprisoned, he carries on John's mission before it is transformed by his own unique contributions and ideas.
Of course, everyone will say each gospel is trying to show a "different perspective". These differences, however, are far too easily explained by the "baptismal embarassment" model. It explains each alteration of the material by the authors after Mark. Secondly, the differences are not simply different, but evolutionary in nature. John is successively minimalized by each successive author. Only the baptismal model explains this.
If Jesus wasn't initially a disciple of John, then why are the authors threatened by his presence? Why was Jesus baptized by John at all? Why did the authors feel the need to rework this material three times until John does little more than proclaim his inferiority, encourage his followers to follow Jesus and proclaim him the Lamb of God (when clearly, he didnt know Jesus was the Christ until his disciples asked him)?