YosefHayim
Member
- Dec 22, 2012
- 1,593
- 292
James 5:16 says:
However, Yeshua, told a parable. Recall the story of the pharisee and the tax collector. Summed up, the pharisee said "I fast, pray, and give. I thank you God that I am not a sinner like the tax collector." However the guilty, self-condemned tax-collector beat his fist against his chest and said "God have mercy on me, a sinner". It was the tax-collector that God answered.
Now I also considered these two verses:
Ephesians 2:8-9
Romans 4:5
Is the prayer effective by faith counted as righteousness which is not a legalistic, self-trusted, self-perfected self-righteousness? Or righteousness of a man sanctified by purification wrought by faith in Christ?
Or is prayer effective by righteousness which would be a righteousness wrought by one own efforts to rid themselves of sin?
For example. Person one is saved by faith, and prays. However, he has fornication and alcohol problems, yet trusts in the Yeshua, thus he is in the process of forsaking his sins. He prays with faith, acknowledging that none of his efforts can't save himself, nor control the course of time and space which is governed by the sovereign hand of YHWH God. Person 2 is also saved by faith. He prays. He thinks "God is really going to answer this one! I've been fasting hard, I've been putting my lustful thoughts on the back burner, and I've been putting more money in the offering bucket!". Whose prayer is more affective? Are they equally affective?
I hope my question is well understood.
Confess your faults one to another, and pray one for another, that you may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man avails much.
It says the prayer of a righteous man is effective. So in this verse, what does it mean by righteous? Does this mean we have to be sanctified and without sin? 2 Timothy 2 says that if we purge ourself of sin we would be "a vessel unto honor, sanctified, and meet for the master's use, and prepared unto every good work".
However, Yeshua, told a parable. Recall the story of the pharisee and the tax collector. Summed up, the pharisee said "I fast, pray, and give. I thank you God that I am not a sinner like the tax collector." However the guilty, self-condemned tax-collector beat his fist against his chest and said "God have mercy on me, a sinner". It was the tax-collector that God answered.
Now I also considered these two verses:
Ephesians 2:8-9
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.
Romans 4:5
But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
So my question is this:
Is the prayer effective by faith counted as righteousness which is not a legalistic, self-trusted, self-perfected self-righteousness? Or righteousness of a man sanctified by purification wrought by faith in Christ?
Or is prayer effective by righteousness which would be a righteousness wrought by one own efforts to rid themselves of sin?
For example. Person one is saved by faith, and prays. However, he has fornication and alcohol problems, yet trusts in the Yeshua, thus he is in the process of forsaking his sins. He prays with faith, acknowledging that none of his efforts can't save himself, nor control the course of time and space which is governed by the sovereign hand of YHWH God. Person 2 is also saved by faith. He prays. He thinks "God is really going to answer this one! I've been fasting hard, I've been putting my lustful thoughts on the back burner, and I've been putting more money in the offering bucket!". Whose prayer is more affective? Are they equally affective?
I hope my question is well understood.