Entropic_Prodigy said:
Actually, I was hoping others would share what they know with me -- and discuss. 1st century A.D. Christian writings are rare, as far as I can tell. If I remember correctly, John was the last apostle to die, possibly around 100 A.D. Most scholars who have examined the document agree that an Apostle did not write this, but it does claim to be influenced by their teachings.
I would agree that the Didache has its origins in Apostolic teaching, especially of the Matthew tradition, which focuses on parts of the faith in a different way than Paul, for example.
Entropic_Prodigy said:
Some of the "Greatest Hits" of the Didache:
1:5 Give to every one that asketh of thee, and ask not again; for the Father wishes that from his own gifts there should be given to all. Blessed is he who giveth according to the commandment, for he is free from guilt; but woe unto him that receiveth. For if a man receive being in need, he shall be free from guilt; but he who receiveth when not in need, shall pay a penalty as to why he received and for what purpose; and when he is in tribulation he shall be examined concerning the things that he has done, and shall not depart thence until he has paid the last farthing.
I would go back to 1:1
There are two ways: one of life and one of death!
This is a large part of the purpose of the Didache, the "Training" that new Gentiles would receive in the Way.
Entropic_Prodigy said:
Chapter 7 also clearly supports water baptism, and baptising "In the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit".
True, and this is a very early tradition. The book I read claims that this may not have been a literal liturgical formula, citing that "the Hebraic expression of acting 'in the name of X' has to do with the way a disciple or a servant is authorized to act, because of training or mandate received from the master" (Milavec, p 62-62).
He also points out that the NT does not attach potentcy to names as the OT does.
This may all be so, but I do not see how that "makes it clear that the trinity of names did not constitute a liturgical formula" (Milavec, p 63), since other writings have the same
exact "formula", such as Matthew 28. And of course, this merely states that the Trinity, even if undefined and vague, appears to have been a concept, since God is indeed the originator of the command to act in His name - as Christ says in Matthew 28 "Baptise them in the name of the ...", meaning, in the name of God (and He tells us that "all power has been given to me from above").
I do agree with him that this was likely not the entire liturgical formula, and that the minister no doubt spoke of mystagogy, the mysterious meaning behind the symbolism of Baptism. Later Christians, such as Ambrose write entire "tracts" that describe the meaning behind Baptism by looking to the various foreshadowings in the OT, such as the flood, the Exodus through the Reed Sea, Naaman, and circumcision. No doubt, the minister reminded the newly baptized of the need to remain in the "Way" (as described in the previous 6 chapters).
Entropic_Prodigy said:
I think it expounds on some of the teachings already present in the bible -- it really doesn't bring in anything new, and it's not contradictory to what's already in scripture.
It does help to explain how new converts were taught in the Way. The Bible does not detail that, as most of the letters are written to already-converted communities.
What I find interesting is that the Didache was originally orally given. There are a number of mnemomics to aid in memorization in the Greek. It also seems quite likely that a spiritual "father" or "mother" would be assigned to a new convert who would teach the Gentile the Way of Life as laid out in the first part of "Training" (didache).
This is a fine historical document that tells us how Christians acted and taught novices in the faith. It adds to our understanding of Scriptures, and also verifies the importance of Baptism, which some people on this forum disagree on.
Entropic_Prodigy said:
What were his conclusions? And did he comment on: 8:1 But as for your fasts, let them not be with the hypocrites, for they fast on the second and fifth days of the week, but do ye fast on the fourth and sixth days.
One conclusion that I do disagree on is his anachronistic idea of women leading celebration of the Eucharist. The Eucharist was seen as a sacrifice very early (as Didache points out), and with Jewish background, it seems unlikely that a woman in the ancient world would be entrusted to this position of authority. We do not find a female elder anywhere, nor is the concept found but extremely rarely in secular culture. "Elders" were strictly men of well-to-do families who served the community "free of charge". In the religious realm (recalling Jewish background), these elders, men, were the ones who offered sacrifice. While it appears plain that women had a new role in the Christian religion, I do not see the evidence that this went all the way that some of the 21st century would like to anachronistically establish into the distant past.
On 8:1...
He notes that the Didache took great pains to separate themselves from the synagogue and Temple, the "hypocrites". He speaks more about the pre-baptismal fast then the weekly fast which distinctly is different than the Jewish fast. I would think the purpose was similar to Jewish fasts.
What I personally found very interesting was his comments on the Lord's Prayer, which follows 8:1. He notes that most scholars see the future-looking expectation in the first three petitions, but regard the last three as a shift to the "daily needs". Milavec notes that linguistically, this is not entirely acceptable.
"...
the request for bread is expressed in the aorist imperative, which anticipates a single future action (as in the case of the first three petitions). In this light Raymond Brown pointed out that the Christian Scriptures supply instances where 'bread' and 'eating' are clearly equated with the future banquet in the Kingdom (Lk 6:21; 14:15; 22:29-30; Mat 8:11; Rev 7:16). 'This eschatological understanding of the petition for bread was the dominant one in the first centuries' (Jeremias). The same logic holds true for the petitioned forgiveness. Again the use of the aorist imperative suggests a single future action" (Milovec, 65-66).
The understanding of "bread" above matches my understanding of Jerome's interpretation of the Greek Scriptures into Latin, where he says "our
supersubstantial bread", rather than our "daily bread". Later interpreters changed the meaning to "daily", but the original intent was to point to a SPECIAL "bread", not common bread, whether refering to the Eucharist or the one Banquet in the Kingdom.
This understanding of the Lord's prayer is interesting to me and is verified by other Scripture writings that appear to expect the coming of the Lord at any time. If this is oral tradition that is quite early, it makes sense. It is understandable that the "meaning" of the Lord's prayer has changed to take into account a "settling in", as Christ's Parousia is 'delayed'. However, the Didache community was clearly expecting the Christ "soon".
I do also agree that this writing is indeed a very early look into Christianity. It is largely devoid of Pauline theology of salvation and the cross, for example. It is full of Jewish-Christian understandings of morality and "fences", ideas found also in Matthew. It also attempts to separate itself from the Jews who will not accept Christianity. I think this points to an earlier separation between Jews and Christians than many may have first thought.
Any other thoughts to share?