To those who believe that god purposefully makes people with absolutely no chance of "salvation", with no will of their own, but just to live as "the unjust" and be sent to hell, . . . . why would god do this? What purpose would billions of "unjust" being created accomplish?
First, let me say that I object to the way you phrase the question. The way you phrase the question demonstrates gross ignorance of what Calvinists teach and is more of a misrepresentation of what Calvinists believe then a proper question. I can only assume that you did not intentionally misrepresent Calvinists out of malice, but out of ignorance because you do not know any better. Strangely enough, Arminians repeat misrepresentations of Calvinism so much, they actually convince each other of their own misrepresentations. To be more specific, God did not "purposely make people with no chance of salvation." Let me rephrase that part of the question... ---> "Why did God made Adam innocent, but decreed that he would fall into sin and take the human race with him as the representative head with the result that men would become "vessels of destruction."
Also, the 2nd part of your question misrepresents Calvinism when you claim man has no "will of his own." Man has a will, but Calvinist believe that the will was bent toward sin during the fall. Its called "sin nature." The will is bent toward rebellion, trespass and sin so much, that we do make a choice. We choose that which are nature wants us to chose and since we relish and love our rebellion, we all choose sin. So then, our disagreement is not over the ability of man to choose, but our disagreement is over the nature of man. You see man as morally neutral in nature, I see man as morally corrupt in nature and loves his sin far to much to choose any different.
No to answer you question. The question really needs no answer because it is explicitily stated within the text. Let me quote from the differnt translations and the WH Greek text.
(KJV) 22What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
(ASV) 22 What if God, willing to show his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering vessels of wrath fitted unto destruction:
(NIV) 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?
(Greek) 22 ει δε θελων ο θεος ενδειξασθαι την οργην και γνωρισαι το δυνατον αυτου ηνεγκεν εν πολλη μακροθυμια σκευη οργης κατηρτισμενα εις απωλειαν
Why did God decree that Adam and mankind would fall into sin? "to show his wrath, and make his power known." It is Gods will that he show his own attributes and receive glory. He wants men in eternity to know his wrath against sin. He wants men to know his power over sinners in their own lives. He wants men to know of his longsuffering with evil men. In that context Paul talks about Pharaoh. In verse 18 Paul talks about God "hardening mens hearts."
18 So then he hath mercy on whom he will, and whom he will be hardeneth.
Just before this Paul says he did this was to make his "power known."
17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, For this very purpose did I raise thee up, that I might show in thee my power, and that my name might be published abroad in all the earth.
That is the same phrase found later in verse 22 where God wants to make his "power known."
Why does God harden hearts? Why does God decree the condemnation of certain individuals and people? To make his power known, and to make his wrath known. The answer is right in the text.
