Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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KenEOTE said:Just wondering if anyone has any thoughts on who or what they were. They are mentioned a couple times in the Bible. I have always been curious.
Paidion said:The word "Nephilim" comes from the word "naphal", meaning "to fall". I understand that the official Rabbinical explanation, as well as that of many of the second-century Christians was that the the Nephilim were the offspring of fallen angels who took human wives.
All other references to "giants" in the Old Testament use the word "Raphah" with the exception of its use by those who brought an "evil report" concerning the land of Caanan.
But Caleb quieted the people before Moses, and said, "Let us go up at once and occupy it, for we are well able to overcome it."
Then the men who had gone up with him said, "We are not able to go up against this people, for they are stronger than we."
So they brought to the Israelites an unfavorable report of the land that they had spied out, saying, "The land that we have gone through as spies is a land that devours its inhabitants; and all the people that we saw in it are of great size. There we saw the Nephilim (the Anakites come from the Nephilim); and to ourselves we seemed like grasshoppers, and so we seemed to them." Numbers 13:30-33
These spies said that they saw Nephilim. That doesn't mean that they did, in fact, see Nephilim. Presumably the Nephilim were destroyed in the flood. True the parenthetical sentence states that the Anakites were descended from the Nephilim. However, it seems that that sentence was added at a later time. For it does not appear in the Greek Septuagint translation made several hundred years before Christ. Unfortunately, verse 33 is missing from the Dead Sea Scrolls manuscript of Numbers, and so it cannot be verified from the Scrolls that the parenthetical sentence was not in the original.
We know Goliath was one [of the nephilim]and that he was very large.
BobRyan said:As R.C Sproul points out there is no support in the Bible for the idea of Angels engaged in breeding at all - much less inter-species breeding.
1. In Matt 22 Jesus states clearly that angels do not form family units not even with themsevles much less with other species!
2. The people of God on earth are called "the sons of God" -- this is true in both OT and NT. John 1 "To as many as received HIm to THEM he gave the right to be called the sons of God"
That is not correct. As has been pointed out, "sons of God" is used of certain persons or certain groups of people. To believe in any other divine beings or gods is in direct contradiction to Scripture.wavy said:R.C. Sproul is correct. The 'sons of God' <בני (×â€)×Âל×â€Ã—™×Â> refers to a pantheon of divine beings (i.e., gods, not mere 'angels') that came down from the sky and copulated with the human women thereby producing giant offspring.
Firstly, there is no reason to believe Jesus didn't say these words. Secondly, they are very relevant to interpreting the passage in Genesis. If it is true that angels cannot procreate, then it is true for all times and in all places, which includes Genesis.wavy said:These words, whether Jesus said them or not, is far removed from the milieu in which Genesis was written and is irrelevant to interpreting it in its own context and cultural setting.
Deut. 32:8 clearly refers to the people of Israel, the context demands that. In Gen. 6:2,4, it is merely assumption that it refers to angels or divine beings--there is no support for either view. Job 1:6, 2:1 and 38:7 clearly refer to angels.wavy said:The phrase 'sons of God' as it appears in the OT always refers to divine beings in the six places where the phrase is found (Genesis vi.2,4; the original text of Deuteronomy xxxii.8, Job i.6; ii.1; xxxviii.7). In none of these contexts can the phrase sensibly refer to human beings.
Free said:That is not correct. As has been pointed out, "sons of God" is used of certain persons or certain groups of people.
To believe in any other divine beings or gods is in direct contradiction to Scripture.
Firstly, there is no reason to believe Jesus didn't say these words. Secondly, they are very relevant to interpreting the passage in Genesis. If it is true that angels cannot procreate, then it is true for all times and in all places, which includes Genesis.
Deut. 32:8 clearly refers to the people of Israel, the context demands that.
In Gen. 6:2,4, it is merely assumption that it refers to angels or divine beings--there is no support for either view. Job 1:6, 2:1 and 38:7 clearly refer to angels.
So what you have is one book that uses the phrase three times to clearly refer to angels. You have another book in which the phrase clearly refers to the people of Israel. Then you have Genesis in which it is unclear to whom the phrase refers, but it likely refers to humans since angels cannot procreate and there are no divine beings other than God himself.
This has nothing to do with my presuppositions and everything to do with yours. I am merely showing that the immediate contexts of certain verses, or a certain verse, refute your interpretation of that verse. You are inserting a meaning into Deut. 32:8 that is completely unwarranted and unsupportable.wavy said:It might be contradictory to your theological presuppositions (including those of inerrancy)
They are completely relevant since the NT is an extension of the OT. There is no NT without the OT. And as I stated, if Jesus made a truth claim about angels, that they cannot procreate, then that is true for all times and in all places.wavy said:No, to read a theological claim of a Gospel written in Greek in an entirely different cultural context and superpose it onto the Hebrew bible is anachronistic. Later theological ideas about angels are irrelevant to Genesis.
No. The argument isn't whether 'sons of God' is used in any of the Scriptures, rather it is your erroneous and unjustifiable interpretation of 'sons of God'. As I stated, the immediate context is clearly referring to the Israelites; but the entire book is about God's dealings with the Israelites, so to say that 'sons of God' is referring to divine beings, is to insert a meaning utterly foreign:wavy said:The original text of Deuteronomy as witnessed by the LXX and the DSS refers to the 'sons of God' which, in the context in which this book was written, referred to divine beings...the 'sons of El'.
wavy said:1. In Matt 22 Jesus states clearly that angels do not form family units not even with themsevles much less with other species!
These words, whether Jesus said them or not, is far removed from the milieu in which Genesis was written and is irrelevant to interpreting it in its own context and cultural setting.
[quote:2dj39197]2. The people of God on earth are called "the sons of God" -- this is true in both OT and NT. John 1 "To as many as received HIm to THEM he gave the right to be called the sons of God"