bramblewild
Member
- Dec 13, 2024
- 50
- 22
Matthew 24
36 “But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only. 37 For as were the days of Noah, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. 38 For as in those days before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day when Noah entered the ark, 39 and they were unaware until the flood came and swept them all away, so will be the coming of the Son of Man.
These verses have puzzled me--it seems as if Jesus is saying that a sign of those days is that people will just be acting like people have always acted; eat, drinking, marrying. I think I even remember preachers and teachers saying that kind of thing, and I went along with that idea, but it still seemed off as a sign.
I've recently been listening to Chuck Missler's discussion on Genesis, and in one of the sessions he makes a reference to something in Daniel 2:
42 And as the toes of the feet were partly iron and partly clay, so the kingdom shall be partly strong and partly brittle. 43 As you saw the iron mixed with soft clay, so they will mix with one another in marriage, but they will not hold together, just as iron does not mix with clay.
If I remember right, it was when he was talking about the time before Noah, when the Sons of God had children by human women, children who were the nephilim. He referred to the verses in Daniel as in indication that the nephilim will be around at the time of this last kingdom.
Assuming that to be true (I'd guess it can be debated), what hit me was how Daniel refers to them as "they" and how that "they" may also be similar to the "they" in Jesus' statement about the end, especially since Jesus is drawing a parallel to how "they" acted before the flood and later in the time before He returns.
Plus, it would make the sign in Jesus' statement more meaningful. If it is the nephilim who are to show up again and act the way they acted before the flood, if the nephilim are Jesus' "they", then the sign has definite meaning.
Understand, please, that I currently have more questions about this than answers. It's something I'm noticing, but not something I'm very sure about just yet. It's intriguing, but that doesn't make it correct.
36 “But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only. 37 For as were the days of Noah, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. 38 For as in those days before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day when Noah entered the ark, 39 and they were unaware until the flood came and swept them all away, so will be the coming of the Son of Man.
These verses have puzzled me--it seems as if Jesus is saying that a sign of those days is that people will just be acting like people have always acted; eat, drinking, marrying. I think I even remember preachers and teachers saying that kind of thing, and I went along with that idea, but it still seemed off as a sign.
I've recently been listening to Chuck Missler's discussion on Genesis, and in one of the sessions he makes a reference to something in Daniel 2:
42 And as the toes of the feet were partly iron and partly clay, so the kingdom shall be partly strong and partly brittle. 43 As you saw the iron mixed with soft clay, so they will mix with one another in marriage, but they will not hold together, just as iron does not mix with clay.
If I remember right, it was when he was talking about the time before Noah, when the Sons of God had children by human women, children who were the nephilim. He referred to the verses in Daniel as in indication that the nephilim will be around at the time of this last kingdom.
Assuming that to be true (I'd guess it can be debated), what hit me was how Daniel refers to them as "they" and how that "they" may also be similar to the "they" in Jesus' statement about the end, especially since Jesus is drawing a parallel to how "they" acted before the flood and later in the time before He returns.
Plus, it would make the sign in Jesus' statement more meaningful. If it is the nephilim who are to show up again and act the way they acted before the flood, if the nephilim are Jesus' "they", then the sign has definite meaning.
Understand, please, that I currently have more questions about this than answers. It's something I'm noticing, but not something I'm very sure about just yet. It's intriguing, but that doesn't make it correct.
