YHWH: Jehovah, Yahweh: KJV could support Yahuwah.

[YosefHayim]

In the Standard King James Version, YHWH is rendered as JEHOVAH 7 times, when used as a personal name. Otherwise it is stylized as the LORD. And when simply stylized as "Lord" or "Lords" the Hebrew is "Adonai" or "Adonim."

I will bless the LORD at all times: his praise shall continually be in my mouth. Psalm 34:1 KJV

*The LORD=YHWH
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Gen 22:14, Exo 6:3, 17:15, Jdg 6:24, Psa 83:18, Isa 12:2, and Isaiah 26:4 in the KJV contain "JEHOVAH" for YHWH.

However, in the 1611 edition of the KJV, the J's are I's and also U's tend to look like V's. When the KJV was edited, the only editions that were altered were spelling (e.g. Beleeueth to Believeth, Moneth to Month.)

Here is what Jesus' name would look like:

And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins Matthew 1:21 KJV

And she shall bring forth a sonne, and thou shalt call his Name IESUS: for hee shall saue his people from their sinnes. Matthew 1:21 KJV 1611
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We have Iseus [Ye-sus] which is similar to Yehsua. And then for Jehovah:

And Moses built an altar, and called the name of it Jehovahnissi: Exodus 17:15 KJV

And Moses built an Altar, and called the name of it IEHOUAH Nissi Exodus 17:15 KJV 1611
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In the 1611 edition, we have both IEHOUAH and IEHOVAH. Notice one is with a v, and the other with a u. We have both Ye-ho-vah and Ye-hou-ah. This shows that the vav can be w or v.

 

[Michael74]

So why translate יהוה as LORD instead of Yahweh?

 

[YosefHayim]

So why translate יהוה as LORD instead of Yahweh?

I believe that stems from the Jews who uttered "Lord" (except when the name was used personally as listed above) when it came to his name, out of fear and reverence for his name. Practically all English translations use this. Most mess up, and use LORD where his name is personal (E.g. "My name is the LORD," his name is not LORD, but YHWH). BibleGateway also messes up the KJV by altering "Lord (Adonai) to LORD" in some instances.

Although, I wonder why not "FATHER" instead of LORD, when JESUS never used "IEHOVAH," but Father.

 

[Michael74]

יהוה = I Am

ἐγώ εἰμί = I Am

Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. John 8:58 KJV

 

[YosefHayim]

יהוה = I Am

ἐγώ εἰμί = I Am

Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. John 8:58 KJV

Indeed, that's Yeshua claiming to be God. However, he did not directly say "IEHOVAH," or use a transliterated version. Yet when Yeshua talked to the I AM, he said "Father". When Jesus said "I am", the hint is found through grammar. He said "I am," instead of saying "I was". In Hebrew "I AM" is "EHYEH" or "AHAYAH". This is where the tetragrammaton is taken from. Take into consideration that others can use "I am" or "Ego Eimi," and is not exclusively used by Jesus.

PAUL SPEAKING:
I G1473 am G1510 (ἐγώ εἰμί) verily a man which am a Jew, born in Tarsus, a city in Cilicia, yet brought up in this city at the feet of Gamaliel, and taught according to the perfect manner of the law of the fathers, and was zealous toward God, as ye all are this day. ACTS 22:3​

Alleluia is the most direct reference in the New Testament. ἀλληλουϊα, Alleluia, or as in hebrew would be Hallelu-Yah; that is that Hallelu means "praise" and Yah/Jah is short for "IEHOVAH"

FATHER
And he said, ABBA, FATHER, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless not what I will, but what thou wilt... ...And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my FATHER, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt. He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my FATHER, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. Mark 14:36, Matthew 26:39, 42

But I said, How shall I put thee among the children, and give thee a pleasant land, a goodly heritage of the hosts of nations? and I said, Thou shalt call me, MY FATHER; and shalt not turn away from me. Jeremiah 3:19​

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[Malachi]

יהוה = I Am
ἐγώ εἰμί = I Am
Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. John 8:58 KJV

Now if you would replace the word "Jesus" (which is not an exact transliteration of the Greek Iesous) with "Yah-shua" or "Yeh-shua" it would fit right in with "I AM", since Yah (JAH in the KJV) is I AM.
Sing unto God, sing praises to his name: extol him that rideth upon the heavens by his name JAH, and rejoice before him. (Ps 68:4).

 

[YosefHayim]

Now if you would replace the word "Jesus" (which is not an exact transliteration of the Greek Iesous) with "Yah-shua" or "Yeh-shua" it would fit right in with "I AM", since Yah (JAH in the KJV) is I AM.
Sing unto God, sing praises to his name: extol him that rideth upon the heavens by his name JAH, and rejoice before him. (Ps 68:4).

I think the KJV actually supports Yeshua as above. In the 1611, his name is Iesus, that is an I and not a J. Eventually the J (which in some languages is pronounced as a y) came along and got a new sound. The true KJV rendering would be Iesus, which is pronounced "Ye-sus". The greek is very similar which is "Iesous". Iesous is a transliteration of Yeshua. Ie:Ye, s:sh, ous:ua

I don't think there is any need to replace "Jesus" or "Iesus," because both are "Yeshua". Both are a blessing, and both are interchangeable. The word "name" in scripture can also be defined as "famous". It's the person that the name is about. And I feel that "Jesus" is special, because it's as though the Holy Spirit inspired the scribes to transliterate his name into a unique word. "Jesus".

 

[Michael74]

He said "I am," instead of saying "I was".

Indeed. From the context, He seems to be referring to His existence which transcends time as we experience it. As Einstein elucidated, time was created simultaneously with space and matter. Since the universe and time were created through Jesus, His existence transcends created time.

Eternity works a bit differently then time here.

I find it interesting that Paul consistently referred to Jesus as Lord. Lord being the word in the Greek Septuagint that is inserted when יהוה is written in the Hebrew OT.

OTOH, in Psalm 110:1b, where the Father is talking to Jesus, יהוה refers to the Father, while a different word is used to refer to Lord Jesus.

נְאֻם יְהוָה, לַאדֹנִי--שֵׁב

 

[YosefHayim]

time was created simultaneously with space and matter

In Genesis, when it says "eastward in Eden," the word is something like "meqedem" and the root "qedem" can mean both "east" and "antiquity". Time and space in one Hebrew word.

 

[Malachi]

I find it interesting that Paul consistently referred to Jesus as Lord. Lord being the word in the Greek Septuagint that is inserted when יהוה is written in the Hebrew OT.

Something which the majority of Christians would do well to heed. Today God expects us to call Jesus "the Lord Jesus Christ" because ever since His resurrection, God has made Him "both Lord and Christ" (Acts 2:36). This is what Peter proclaimed to the Jews at Pentecost, fifty days after His crucifixion. All the greetings in the epistles generally begin with "Grace be unto you, and peace, from God our Father, and from THE LORD JESUS CHRIST" (1 Cor 1:3). Even the majority of preachers today say just "Jesus", and that downgrades who He presently is. This title was reinforced by doubting Thomas who said "My LORD and my GOD" (Jn 20:28) when he saw the resurrected Savior.