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Bible Study Gender of the Holy Spirit : female personality

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rthom7

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In the most ancient of the rare Old Syriac copies, the Siniatic Palimpsest, from the 4th or 5th century, found in the Covenant of St. Catherine in the Sinia by Mrs. Anes Lewis and transcribed by Syriac Professor R.L. Bensly of Cambridge University in 1892, the words of Jesus in John 14:26 read: But She—the Spirit-the Paraclete whom He will send to you-my Father-in my name—She will teach you everything; She will remind you of that which I have told you."



- See more at: http://www.adishakti.org/_/feminine_gender_of_the_holy_spirit.htm#sthash.nKjpRe0K.dpuf


Greetings,

I need some help showing the female personality of the Holy Spirit. This link shows that the most ancient Syriac manuscripts show in John 14:17 or John 14:26 , that the Holy Spirit should be translated as "she" will lead you into all truth, rather than Greek manuscripts as "He" will lead into all truth. Later versions of the Syriac manuscripts are translations of the Greek, so it is difficult to unravel the real evidence of truth....

from the OT Hebrew the Holy Spirit is written as "ruwach" and this is feminine in case...so that should settle the matter.

However when translations were made into Greek, following the authority of the LXX the first translation of Hebrew into Greek by 70 scholars, the Greek word pneuma was chosen, which is masculine or neutral in case, hence the John 14:17 shows the pronoun "he" for the Greek translation.

Many people in the theories of faith are losing heart over this issue, hence I was hoping to find ancient Syriac interlinear passages of John 14:17 showing the pronoun "she" used instead of "He". Does any such examples exist on the Internet?

I welcome any help or general comments on this theme.
Shalom
 
I need some help showing the female personality of the Holy Spirit.
More "new" doctrine. Since the New Testament was written in Greek, why would the Syriac have more authority? Scripture is very clear that God -- the Godhead -- is masculine, and the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are all masculine, and referred to as "He" or "Him". Once we start on this track of "female personality", heresies will abound.
 
In the most ancient of the rare Old Syriac copies, the Siniatic Palimpsest, from the 4th or 5th century, found in the Covenant of St. Catherine in the Sinia by Mrs. Anes Lewis and transcribed by Syriac Professor R.L. Bensly of Cambridge University in 1892, the words of Jesus in John 14:26 read: But She—the Spirit-the Paraclete whom He will send to you-my Father-in my name—She will teach you everything; She will remind you of that which I have told you."



- See more at: http://www.adishakti.org/_/feminine_gender_of_the_holy_spirit.htm#sthash.nKjpRe0K.dpuf


Greetings,

I need some help showing the female personality of the Holy Spirit. This link shows that the most ancient Syriac manuscripts show in John 14:17 or John 14:26 , that the Holy Spirit should be translated as "she" will lead you into all truth, rather than Greek manuscripts as "He" will lead into all truth. Later versions of the Syriac manuscripts are translations of the Greek, so it is difficult to unravel the real evidence of truth....

from the OT Hebrew the Holy Spirit is written as "ruwach" and this is feminine in case...so that should settle the matter.

However when translations were made into Greek, following the authority of the LXX the first translation of Hebrew into Greek by 70 scholars, the Greek word pneuma was chosen, which is masculine or neutral in case, hence the John 14:17 shows the pronoun "he" for the Greek translation.

Many people in the theories of faith are losing heart over this issue, hence I was hoping to find ancient Syriac interlinear passages of John 14:17 showing the pronoun "she" used instead of "He". Does any such examples exist on the Internet?

I welcome any help or general comments on this theme.
Shalom
God, the father and God, the Holy Spirit do not have a sex! No spirit can have sex because there is no genitalia. Your research is in vain.
 
It must also be remembered that there were many matriarchal religious groups who could have rewritten anything with a feminine slant.

The writings of the Bible pre-date 4th or 5th century. I'll stay with the Bible.
 
You might be all right, perhaps this is a dangerous research to consider.... however to make it clear to some, a text in Deuteronomy says Elohiym is not man, nor like man, second there is no text implying Elohiym is any gender or sex, that is important to state first off as some have already.... no I am referring to personality.... Hebrew writes nouns as function with masculine or feminine case, not to promote gender, but to show personality aspects of love in action.

I call these different aspects of love maleness love and femaleness love, for a reason, if you study love in Scripture there are TWO words for love, not one as most people suspect.

http://spiritualsprings.org/ss-845.htm Consider my study on love here

A.gif
E.gif
B.gif
here is Ahab love, also known in Greek as Agape

A.gif
E.gif
B.gif
E.gif
and here is Ahabuh love known in Greek as philo love

Both types of love come from relationships and suggests Elohiym has unique differences in expressing their love within the trinity....

So I was wondering is ancient Syriac textual evidence exists on the Internet....

It is a common fact that in the OT the Hebrew word for Holy Spirit s feminine in case ( again not a reference to gender or sex, but a simile to female personality)

Shalom
 
And for those who want to read Hebrew letter pictograms in the word, which help in meaning of he word,

Ahab reads" The Strong one Behold the Being in the home
and
Ahabuh read "The strong one Behold the Being in the home (relays to) the Being Behold !

Ahabuh is a relational aspect of love towards another.
Shalom
 
In the most ancient of the rare Old Syriac copies, the Siniatic Palimpsest, from the 4th or 5th century, found in the Covenant of St. Catherine in the Sinia by Mrs. Anes Lewis and transcribed by Syriac Professor R.L. Bensly of Cambridge University in 1892, the words of Jesus in John 14:26 read: But She—the Spirit-the Paraclete whom He will send to you-my Father-in my name—She will teach you everything; She will remind you of that which I have told you."



- See more at: http://www.adishakti.org/_/feminine_gender_of_the_holy_spirit.htm#sthash.nKjpRe0K.dpuf


Greetings,

I need some help showing the female personality of the Holy Spirit. This link shows that the most ancient Syriac manuscripts show in John 14:17 or John 14:26 , that the Holy Spirit should be translated as "she" will lead you into all truth, rather than Greek manuscripts as "He" will lead into all truth. Later versions of the Syriac manuscripts are translations of the Greek, so it is difficult to unravel the real evidence of truth....

from the OT Hebrew the Holy Spirit is written as "ruwach" and this is feminine in case...so that should settle the matter.

However when translations were made into Greek, following the authority of the LXX the first translation of Hebrew into Greek by 70 scholars, the Greek word pneuma was chosen, which is masculine or neutral in case, hence the John 14:17 shows the pronoun "he" for the Greek translation.

Many people in the theories of faith are losing heart over this issue, hence I was hoping to find ancient Syriac interlinear passages of John 14:17 showing the pronoun "she" used instead of "He". Does any such examples exist on the Internet?

I welcome any help or general comments on this theme.
Shalom


I like this study, but I stay within the boundary's of "anthropomorphic" study.

anthropomorphic -
ascribing human form or attributes to a being or thing not human, especially to a deity.


So, I will engage with you in this study "anthropomophically" speaking so as to assign "human attributes" to a Deity for the purpose of better understanding what the bible says.

And by the way, these "nay sayers" that are quick to jump in with their negative comments, I have found through experience, have the same issues of misunderstanding what the plain words of scripture say, so don't worry to much about them. :clap

From the other side of the coin, concerning "Heresy", I would think it would be more of a Heresy to imply that God was a homosexual, than otherwise, since His word is clear about that subject.

Let's start from Genesis.

26 Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.” 27 So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them. Genesis 1:26-27

Was Eve created in the image and likeness of God.

Now for the discerning person, this should end the subject.

And it should also end any discussion as to whether Jesus is God, as well as giving us a better understanding of the [Trinity] Godhead.

A better understanding of the passage that says , these three are One.

However, for our study, this question, and it's answer is just the beginning.


Be Blessed. JLB
 
In the most ancient of the rare Old Syriac copies, the Siniatic Palimpsest, from the 4th or 5th century, found in the Covenant of St. Catherine in the Sinia by Mrs. Anes Lewis and transcribed by Syriac Professor R.L. Bensly of Cambridge University in 1892, the words of Jesus in John 14:26 read: But She—the Spirit-the Paraclete whom He will send to you-my Father-in my name—She will teach you everything; She will remind you of that which I have told you."



- See more at: http://www.adishakti.org/_/feminine_gender_of_the_holy_spirit.htm#sthash.nKjpRe0K.dpuf


Greetings,

I need some help showing the female personality of the Holy Spirit. This link shows that the most ancient Syriac manuscripts show in John 14:17 or John 14:26 , that the Holy Spirit should be translated as "she" will lead you into all truth, rather than Greek manuscripts as "He" will lead into all truth. Later versions of the Syriac manuscripts are translations of the Greek, so it is difficult to unravel the real evidence of truth....

from the OT Hebrew the Holy Spirit is written as "ruwach" and this is feminine in case...so that should settle the matter.

However when translations were made into Greek, following the authority of the LXX the first translation of Hebrew into Greek by 70 scholars, the Greek word pneuma was chosen, which is masculine or neutral in case, hence the John 14:17 shows the pronoun "he" for the Greek translation.

Many people in the theories of faith are losing heart over this issue, hence I was hoping to find ancient Syriac interlinear passages of John 14:17 showing the pronoun "she" used instead of "He". Does any such examples exist on the Internet?

I welcome any help or general comments on this theme.
Shalom

1Timothy 6:3 "If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness;
6:4 He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings,
6:5 Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.
6:6 But godliness with contentment is great gain."

Good morning rthom7. I trust my friends are well and praising Messiah for His sustaining Grace. You have an interesting presentation here about the Holy Spirit being feminine. Although I believe there is a certain vain attempt to disqualify the third person of the Trinity, I'll yield my comments to my learned good friend JLB in post #8. He is much more qualified than I, and I lean on his teachings on this subject and approve his statements.
 
1Timothy 6:3 "If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness;
6:4 He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings,
6:5 Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.
6:6 But godliness with contentment is great gain."

Good morning rthom7. I trust my friends are well and praising Messiah for His sustaining Grace. You have an interesting presentation here about the Holy Spirit being feminine. Although I believe there is a certain vain attempt to disqualify the third person of the Trinity, I'll yield my comments to my learned good friend JLB in post #8. He is much more qualified than I, and I lean on his teachings on this subject and approve his statements.

Hi Chopper,
This is all new to me but I'd like to say that I don't think rthome7 is trying to disqualify the third person of the Godhead, but is only saying that the personality of the third person might well be feminine.

Would this be such a great heresy?

On another thread I brought up the fact that some words in the bible have been altered to suit the belief system of the person doing the translating. I had said that the closer you get to an event, the more true its understanding will be.

I would find it rather upsetting to discover that a word in an earlier text was changed by a translator in a later text.

When Jerome translated the Hebrew bible into Latin, he complained that he had different versions of some words and/or verses to choose from and this must have given him problems (as to know which to pick).
And so, wouldn't he pick the version that best suited his own beliefs?

If the Holy Spirit was referred to as female in early texts, isn't it worth a look?

What would change? it would still be the Holy Spirit.

Just thinking out loud.

Wondering
 
I like this study, but I stay within the boundary's of "anthropomorphic" study.

anthropomorphic -
ascribing human form or attributes to a being or thing not human, especially to a deity.

So, I will engage with you in this study "anthropomophically" speaking so as to assign "human attributes" to a Deity for the purpose of better understanding what the bible says.

And by the way, these "nay sayers" that are quick to jump in with their negative comments, I have found through experience, have the same issues of misunderstanding what the plain words of scripture say, so don't worry to much about them. :clap

From the other side of the coin, concerning "Heresy", I would think it would be more of a Heresy to imply that God was a homosexual, than otherwise, since His word is clear about that subject.

Let's start from Genesis.

26 Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.” 27 So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them. Genesis 1:26-27

Was Eve created in the image and likeness of God.

Now for the discerning person, this should end the subject.

And it should also end any discussion as to whether Jesus is God, as well as giving us a better understanding of the [Trinity] Godhead.

A better understanding of the passage that says , these three are One.

However, for our study, this question, and it's answer is just the beginning.

Be Blessed. JLB

H JLB,
Yes, you bring out a point most have probably never noticed.

You post:
“Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.” 27 So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them. Genesis 1:26-27

It is accepted theology that God was speaking to the Godhead when He said the above words.
THEN He went ahead and created man and woman. In HIS image. He even said, "it is not good for man to be alone" Genesis 2:18
And then God made man a HELPER.
The Holy Spirit is a helper.

Something to be considered...
An interesting discussion based on old writings - I see no problem with this.

Wondering
 
To the extent that a man will stand up for his wife, doesn't seem to be so dissimilar to the warning in scripture that says the only unforgivable sin is one against the Holy Spirit... Could be.

But it's a non salvific issue so how fruitful could it be to pursue a discussion about it?
:couch
 
If the Holy Spirit was referred to as female in early texts, isn't it worth a look?
What would change? it would still be the Holy Spirit.
Christians should be fully aware that Bible texts were corrupted both in the Hebrew and in the Greek, as well as the Aramaic, in order to promote false doctrines. Paganism promotes the Mother Goddess as the supreme deity (which Feminism had adopted), and the male and female gods and goddesses of Canaan began to be worshipped by even the Israelites.

There is absolutely no indication in the Bible that the Holy Spirit -- who is called called *the Spirit of God* (who is masculine) and *the Spirit of Christ* (who is also masculine) -- is anything other than masculine. Furthermore, we are dealing with the Mystery of God, where three Divine Persons are all God, yet God is only One. Just as a man cannot be a man and a woman at the same time, God cannot have a female deity within the Godhead and remain an integral and integrated Godhead.
 
To the extent that a man will stand up for his wife, doesn't seem to be so dissimilar to the warning in scripture that says the only unforgivable sin is one against the Holy Spirit... Could be.

But it's a non salvific issue so how fruitful could it be to pursue a discussion about it?
:couch

Or....

Say what you want about me, but if you talk about my mom....
 
Christians should be fully aware that Bible texts were corrupted both in the Hebrew and in the Greek, as well as the Aramaic, in order to promote false doctrines. Paganism promotes the Mother Goddess as the supreme deity (which Feminism had adopted), and the male and female gods and goddesses of Canaan began to be worshipped by even the Israelites.

There is absolutely no indication in the Bible that the Holy Spirit -- who is called called *the Spirit of God* (who is masculine) and *the Spirit of Christ* (who is also masculine) -- is anything other than masculine. Furthermore, we are dealing with the Mystery of God, where three Divine Persons are all God, yet God is only One. Just as a man cannot be a man and a woman at the same time, God cannot have a female deity within the Godhead and remain an integral and integrated Godhead.

So far we have used no "corrupt texts" or special Greek or Hebrew word "meanings", just the plain words of scripture.

Can you answer this simple question from Genesis 1:26-27?

Was Eve created in the image and likeness of God?


JLB
 
Christians should be fully aware that Bible texts were corrupted both in the Hebrew and in the Greek, as well as the Aramaic, in order to promote false doctrines. Paganism promotes the Mother Goddess as the supreme deity (which Feminism had adopted), and the male and female gods and goddesses of Canaan began to be worshipped by even the Israelites.
I agree with your first sentence and this is why the O.P. has brought up this topic.
It would seem that from early manuscripts, mentioned by the O.P., the Aramaic word used for the Holy Spirit is feminine.

This is from the link the O.P. posted:

In his [Jerome] writings he does leave us a clue to the subject at hand. At one point he has before him the Gospel to the Hebrews written in Aramaic used by the Syrian Christians which, as some now say, was the forerunner to the gospel of Matthew and predated the four canonical gospels. In it, Jerome says that the Holy Spirit is expressed in the feminine gender and is considered the mother in law of the soul. - See more at: http://www.adishakti.org/_/feminine_gender_of_the_holy_spirit.htm#sthash.nKjpRe0K.HFQT1tw4.dpuf

So the question does arise as to whether Jesus might have spoken of the Holy Spirit in feminine terms and then there was some political or social reason why it was changed to the masculine gender in translations.

It's interesting to note that Jesus was very accepting of women at a time when they were really not well respected and were demeaned. He might have wanted to make a point that women must also be members of the Kingdom, or maybe He had other reasons for respecting them as He did?


There is absolutely no indication in the Bible that the Holy Spirit -- who is called called *the Spirit of God* (who is masculine) and *the Spirit of Christ* (who is also masculine) -- is anything other than masculine. Furthermore, we are dealing with the Mystery of God, where three Divine Persons are all God, yet God is only One. Just as a man cannot be a man and a woman at the same time, God cannot have a female deity within the Godhead and remain an integral and integrated Godhead.

The "Spirit of God" would be masculine if God is wholly masculine. And precisely because God is a mystery, how can we be sure that somehow a part of Him is not feminine. I don't know how to express this - I don't want to give the impression that I'm of the belief, as are some modern thinkers, that God is a woman. Jesus was male and God is also male.

I do ask, however, - not necessarily of you - what importance this would have?

Maybe rthom7 would care to reply?
If he posted this it must be important to him in some way...

Wondering
 
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