Let me say that I generally quote from the ASV. I don't think we need to cover Romans 4 very much. It is so obvious and self evident that there are no works in salvation in this text that little comment is needed. Is that fair?
4 Now to him that worketh, the reward is not reckoned as of grace, but as of debt.
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is reckoned for righteousness.
Faith is "reckoned for righteousness" only when there is no works.
I think the real question is James 2. A year ago, or two years ago I did a full exegesis of James 2. Probably it is gone by now. The key to James 2 is to understand the concept of "semantic range." Words do not always mean the same thing in different contexts. One of those words is "justify." Let me illustrate the sematic range.
****Two people went into a room and one was shot. When one guy came out, he claimed he was innocent of murder. He was justified in that claim when the police found the murderer still hiding in the room.
In the above use of the word, does this mean that the man who came out of the room was spiritually saved and went to heaven? Here the term is used to say that a certain claim is righteous or just.
**** Of course this is not the way Paul uses the term in Romans 4.
The first illustration is closer to the way James uses it. The question of James 2, is what is being "justified." The key verse that demonstrates the thing being justified is found in verse 18.
18 Yea, a man will say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: show me thy faith apart from thy works, and I by my works will show thee my faith.
**** Here are two men. Both claim they have faith. There is a third man in verse 18 who is an observer. The observer sees one man who "says" he has faith, but has no works. The other man does not say anything, but he has works. The question of verse 18 for the observer is how do we know which man actually has faith? Let me rephrase that question... which man is justified in claiming to have faith?
**** The end of verse 18 explains the issue. Works shows faith. Works manifest saving faith. Works justifies the claim "I have faith."
19 Thou believest that God is one; thou doest well: the demons also believe, and shudder.
**** This is the illustration to the principle found in verse 18. The illustration demonstrates that works justifies the claim to have faith.
When we get to verse 24.... 24 Ye see that by works a man is justified, and not only by faith.
**** Because of the context, this verse must not be seen in a Pauline sense. It is not the soul of a man being justified here, but the claim "I have faith." A man is not wrong in claiming to have faith if his faith is justified by works. A man does not have true saving faith unless that faith blossoms and results in works. Some quote the thief on the cross as an example of a saved man without works. However, even that thief had a tongue and used to to ask Jesus to remember him when he comes into his kingdom. His faith could be seen right there. Yet he went on and rebuked the other thief and spoke of how they deserve death. He knew his sin. His only hope was Jesus who was dieing on the next cross. But how would this dieing Jesus receive a glorious kingdom. He was dieing. That was a justified claim to faith.
CONCLUSION
James is not saying that works contribute to salvation, neither do they assist in salvation. James is saying that works always follow salvation and works justify the claim "I have faith."
*** Frodo, I will be attempting to engage you in conversation here. Others might respond and want to challenge me, but I do not feel the need to respond to everyone that speaks up.
And WORKS? The Word of Christ is a Promise that has 
2 Tim. 3:16
