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How do yo make the Son of Man coming in his kingdom the equivalent of the resurrection please? Can you back that up with scripture? Elsewhere Jesus talks explicitly about his coming death and resurrection - so why wouldn't he just use 'resurrection' in Matthew 16?

But such a view is not a consensus among Christians - something which is deeply damaging to the efficacy of the gospel. Though C.S. Lewis remained a Christian - that he said the verse was embarrassing demonstrates such damage. Please tell me - what about Matthew 16:28 “Truly I tell you, some...

Thanks for this Randy...yes good points. The niggle I have (with my explanation) is that the Temple was destroyed in 70AD - and, indeed, not one stone was left upon another - but Jesus appears to have had no knowledge that that would not be the end of the world and the time of his second...

It's been a while but I have continued to think deeply about a solution to this issue and wanted to post my thoughts. I want to ask: to whom is Jesus speaking to in verse 15 of Matthew 24? Is he speaking to his disciples who have asked him (v.3) what the sign of his coming will be and when the...

I guess I am a little perplexed at this phrase 'the last days' which intuitively seems at odds with a 2000 year period of time. Would anyone describe their time as 'the last days' if at least 2000 years (some 730 thousand days) were to follow?

Is there any doubt that the apostle Peter thought that the last days had come? Acts 2:14-21 Then Peter stood up with the Eleven, raised his voice and addressed the crowd: “Fellow Jews and all of you who live in Jerusalem, let me explain this to you; listen carefully to what I say. These people...

The notion that Jesus returned in AD70 is beyond comprehension; a non-event if ever there was one. Or have I misunderstood your post?

Might be worth focusing on v. 33 which may be translated 'he' rather than 'it'. If we take on board the fact that Jesus, in predicting the end time and his parousia, must not be limited in any way as to the exact moment when it will occur, then 'this generation' must be 'allowed' to reference...

Thanks miamited - that makes sense. Would you like to respond to the rest of my post - that Jesus' response to his disciples questions is a special case...that 'this' (generation) does not have to mean those to whom he was speaking since they are asking when the end will come which could be any...

Do we take it that the signs that Jesus refers to are literally in relation to Israel and the Jews? He mentions Judea and the 'abomination that causes desolation' (which I assume is a reference to The Temple).

Do you think it right to infer that Jesus, who was sent only for the lost sheep of Israel, is indeed speaking to Jews who see such signs? In Mat. 24:15ff his references are Jewish. In reading the entire passage again, I cannot help but consider it a special case because it is about when in the...

In the Olivet discourse Jesus makes many specific points that are to be warning signs. You are suggesting that his warning about the abomination isn't literal - but why stop there? Indeed, where do we draw the line - literal or metaphor? So for example Matthew 24:7-8 Nation will rise against...

Sorry, I'm not entirely clear journeyman - perhaps you could explain further? Regarding the specifics of this thread - previously here you have said: The "abomination which causes desolation" is the rejection of Gods' Word, which is what happened when Jesus was condemned. Surely this is...

I understand, yes - but I am wondering about your logic. Is it possible to reason out your conclusion? I guess what I am saying is why couldn't Jesus have just said that? He specifically spoke about the Daniel reference...though it seems even that isn't definitively understood. I do feel a...

I still don't understand why you have interpreted Jesus' Olivet discourse in the way that you have. I was hoping for an explanation. I'm not even saying you are wrong.

I have read through all your posts on this thread (I'm not singling you out - I do intend to do it for everyone who has posted here) and I remain confused by your position. Jesus warns those that are true believers in him to watch out for a certain occurrence and then to flee: Matthew 24:15-21...

If the taking of multiple wives is a sin, then how is it possible that the Song of Solomon became part of the canon? Why would John Piper's ministry website say that it: '...poetically unfurls the glory of marriage and sex in a way that lauds complementarian monogamy'. That is an unconscionable...

Surely it is worth noting that the desecration of the temple by the Romans in 70AD happened at the end of the siege. No one, including any Christians mindful of Jesus' words to flee (once they'd seen the 'abomination that causes desolation') would have had the opportunity to do so.

Not the Holy of Holies though. This (the Passover) was Nissan not Tishri if I am not mistaken.

I do NOT assert that Christ was wrong. I am merely asking for a satisfactory explanation of Matthew 24:34, Mark 13:20 and Luke 21:32. I do think and agree there is a significance to the fact that Israel is surrounded by enemies and that the whole world may end up siding with them if they...