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1 jn 2:1-2 Propitiation

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savedbygrace57

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1 jn 1:

1 John 2

1My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:

2And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Before and after the cross of Jesus Christ, there has never been anyone who is saved, whose sins were not propitiated for by Jesus christ..That goes for the beginning of time until the end of time..acts says not in vain:

12Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.

Propitiation is vitally important in the work of salvation and is one of the many spiritual blessings accomplished by the work of Christ unto God, and for the sins of God's people.

In its simplest definition the word means satisfaction for sins. This means the Lord Jesus Christ in His office of High Priest [ heb 2:17] and as the representative of His people [ or seed] a predetermined number of people signified by 144000, He made a sacrifice to God the Father, on their behalf [ much like the High Priest in the OT] who was a shadow or type of Jesus Christ, of which sacrifice was satisfying to God for the expiation, removal of their sins..eph 5:

2And walk in love, as Christ also hath loved us, and hath given himself for us an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweetsmelling savour.

heb 9:

26For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.

28So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

Jesus Christ went into the Holy of Holies made without hands and obtained eternal redemption for His people [ the spiritual seed of Abraham], because His sacrifice satisfied of God's Holy Law and Justice [ on their behalf]..

Heb 9:

12Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us.

col 1:

14In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins: [ Propitiation and forgiveness are linked and inseparable]

heb 9:

24For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:

Gods Justice is now fully and forever satisfied [ on behalf of the elect], His Justice does not and cannot demand no further penalty for their sins [ even when they are in unbelief by nature ], for their sin penalty has been met fully by their Mediator and High Priest Heb 10:

12But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;

13From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.

14For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

Satisfaction has been made [ He therefore sits down], God requires nothing of those sinners for whom propitiation has been made..

God gives them faith and repentance as evidences of their sins having been removed, and His Justice on their behalf met in full through Jesus Christ..
 
savedbygrace57 said:
God requires nothing of those sinners for whom propitiation has been made..

God gives them faith and repentance as evidences of their sins having been removed, and His Justice on their behalf met in full through Jesus Christ..


He asks obedience .Joh 14:15 If ye love me, ye will keep my commandments.
 
Cornelius said:
savedbygrace57 said:
God requires nothing of those sinners for whom propitiation has been made..

God gives them faith and repentance as evidences of their sins having been removed, and His Justice on their behalf met in full through Jesus Christ..


He asks obedience .Joh 14:15 If ye love me, ye will keep my commandments.

God causes His saved people to walk in obedience..ezk 36:


26A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.

27And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.

Thats why Paul could write to the Philippians phil 2:


12Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.

13For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.
 
Isn't that the same?'

1) And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.

and

2) Joh 14:15 If ye love me, ye will keep my commandments.


He causes - we will
 
Geo said:
Isn't that the same?'

1) And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.

and

2) Joh 14:15 If ye love me, ye will keep my commandments.


He causes - we will

Yes, but you are off subject, this thread is about propitiation, that was because of Jesus christ obedience..
 
As stated previously propitiation means too forgiveness of sins heb 8:

12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.

The word merciful here is the greek word hileos and means:

propitious, merciful

So propitiation, God's satisfaction, he will not remember our sins and unrighteousness no more, this is forgiveness of sins through the redemption that is in His blood..

Again there is no propitiation with being annexed with it the remission of sins. In lk 18 13, the tax collector under a sense of his sinfulness, asked God to be merciful [ to be propitiated towards him] he was a sinner seeking forgiveness..

So those who carelessly teach and believe that 1 jn 2 :1-2 is speaking of every individual in the world, then that would mean every individual in the world has had their sins forgiven, and these words of scripture would be irrelevant:

Matt 25:

41Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:
 
n its simplest definition the word means satisfaction for sins. This means the Lord Jesus Christ in His office of High Priest [ heb 2:17] and as the representative of His people [ or seed] a predetermined number of people signified by 144000, He made a sacrifice to God the Father, on their behalf [ much like the High Priest in the OT]

I'm stuck on the 144,000 aspect of your post. Are you saying that only 144,000 people had their sins paid for by Jesus' death. What about the rest of us?

Or are you saying that 144,000 is just a symbolic number - saying that Jesus only died for a certain number of people's sins? Is this a theology of limited atonement? If so, what do you do with John 3:16 "For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son..." Is this better translated as "For God so loved certain people in the world that only those few would be saved" ?
 
aaron says:

I'm stuck on the 144,000 aspect of your post

Dont worry about that, the number is only given to signify that God has a definite # of Sons to redeem..
 
savedbygrace57 said:
So those who carelessly teach and believe that 1 jn 2 :1-2 is speaking of every individual in the world, then that would mean every individual in the world has had their sins forgiven, and these words of scripture would be irrelevant:

Let's look a little closer at that verse...You can't just throw out the tail end because it doesn't fit your message.
1 John 2:1-2 said:
My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

You're confusing your terms....propitiation for the sins of the world does not say all men will apply it by faith. So to equate salvation with that work of the cross is error. In the same way the veil was rent...it does not mean all will enter through the veil.
 
glorydaz said:
savedbygrace57 said:
So those who carelessly teach and believe that 1 jn 2 :1-2 is speaking of every individual in the world, then that would mean every individual in the world has had their sins forgiven, and these words of scripture would be irrelevant:

Let's look a little closer at that verse...You can't just throw out the tail end because it doesn't fit your message.
1 John 2:1-2 said:
My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

You're confusing your terms....propitiation for the sins of the world does not say all men will apply it by faith. So to equate salvation with that work of the cross is error. In the same way the veil was rent...it does not mean all will enter through the veil.

Jesus christ propitiated God on behalf of the whole world of the elect, time wise and geograpically or ethnic wise..
 
The writer of hebrews also tells us whom Christ propitiated God in behalf of Heb 2:

17Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.

The word reconciliation is the greek word:

Hilaskomai :

to render one's self, to appease, conciliate to one's self
to become propitious, be placated or appeased
to be propitious, be gracious, be merciful
to expiate, make propitiation for

The Great High Priest Jesus christ as typified by the OT High Priest Aaron, only offered up sacrifice for a people..not the whole world of individuals, the difference being now, is that , instead of that certain people being confined unto one nation [ Israel] they are located all around the world...
 
glory:

You're confusing your terms....propitiation for the sins of the world does not say all men will apply it by faith.

They dont need to apply it, it was made to God, propitiation is between God and Jesus christ..He propitiated God by His death for the elect, so now the elect have no sins to be punished for..all that can be done to them now is call them into fellowship..bless them with all spiritual blessings [to include faith]they need to live for God..
 
savedbygrace57 said:
glory:

You're confusing your terms....propitiation for the sins of the world does not say all men will apply it by faith.

They dont need to apply it, it was made to God, propitiation is between God and Jesus christ..He propitiated God by His death for the elect, so now the elect have no sins to be punished for..all that can be done to them now is call them into fellowship..bless them with all spiritual blessings [to include faith]they need to live for God..

Propitiation was made to God by Jesus on the behalf of mankind.

He became sin....taking the sins of the whole world. All men.

It does need to be accessed by FAITH...it's grace...the mercy seat sprinkled with the blood.
Romans 5:2 said:
By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.
Romans 5:1 said:
Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:
Luke 18:42 said:
And Jesus said unto him, Receive thy sight: thy faith hath saved thee.
Ephesians 2:8 said:
For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
 
When trying to understand the word propitiation in 1John 2:1-2 I suggest we clarify what propitiation means. We have restored favor with God through Christ and he is favorably inclined toward us even though we are riddled with sin. Christ’s work has brought calm and peace between God and man. This calm does not guarantee salvation to all living but the door is open to who so ever will come to him. We must look at the context and purpose of John’s letter. His message is that fellowship with God is the essence of salvation and eternal life. God’s purpose through John was to let us know that he desires a very intimate relationship with us. He vented his wrath on Jesus and is now drawing men to salvation which translates into joy, peace and harmony with the Holy Spirit in spite of our sinful nature. Many have salvation yet do not enjoy closeness with God. God has told us we were sanctified (set apart for sacred purpose) in Christ yet we are all a work in progress. As we are transformed by the renewing of our mind and growing in grace daily we have the assurance that God is patient and at ease with us. We can be confident that he is more than willing for us to grow and prosper in the spirit.
 
sheepdog said:
When trying to understand the word propitiation in 1John 2:1-2 I suggest we clarify what propitiation means. We have restored favor with God through Christ and he is favorably inclined toward us even though we are riddled with sin. Christ’s work has brought calm and peace between God and man. This calm does not guarantee salvation to all living but the door is open to who so ever will come to him. We must look at the context and purpose of John’s letter. His message is that fellowship with God is the essence of salvation and eternal life. God’s purpose through John was to let us know that he desires a very intimate relationship with us. He vented his wrath on Jesus and is now drawing men to salvation which translates into joy, peace and harmony with the Holy Spirit in spite of our sinful nature. Many have salvation yet do not enjoy closeness with God. God has told us we were sanctified (set apart for sacred purpose) in Christ yet we are all a work in progress. As we are transformed by the renewing of our mind and growing in grace daily we have the assurance that God is patient and at ease with us. We can be confident that he is more than willing for us to grow and prosper in the spirit.

Peace and calm between God and man...I like that.
Now...whosoever will can come. :thumb
 
If one really looked at 1 jn 2:1-2 it is plain John means different groups of believers are interested in the propitiation, because otherwise it would make no sense to say " He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world, for if John meant the whole world without exception, He would have simply said from the start, " For He is the propitiation for the sins of the whole world, why use also ? But it goes to show that John had jewish believers and then gentile believers in mind..not the whole world without exception..
 
savedbygrace57 said:
sheepdog:

This calm does not guarantee salvation

False teaching..
Let me see you think God is a respecter of persons and only a select few have the potential to be saved? My comments are not false when you read the entire sentence I wrote but then again if you want to debate it is convenient to drag words from the middle of a sentence and misinterpret them. You should of at least included the words, "for all living" in your post.
 
sheep:

Let me see you think God is a respecter of persons

No I know you are a false teacher though..nowhere in scripture can you find that those who sins have been propitiated for are not saved..all their sins have been paid for..
 
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