A Change Of The Law (Hebrews 7:12)
This is a popular passage that is brought up whenever the observance of the torah is in discussion. Many people look at the torah as some lengthy document that is all held together in a chain of letters, and if is not completed to each and every letter by any singular man or woman, then it collapses.
Something like, "well if you keep the sabbath, why don't you make sacrifices? it's all in the law isn't it? why don't you take a lamb to the priest to atone for your sin? why don't you stone people? because if you disobey one you disobey all of it, right?" is an argument I personally encounter all of the time.
Now, it's logical to assume that if the order of Aaron and the Levites that were given to them (Numbers 3:5-9) have been set aside in favor of Yahshua and his priesthood, which is after the order of Melech-Tzadik (“Melchisedecâ€Â, who was actually priest long before Aaron and the Levites were), that this affects the manner in which we keep all the rest of torah. It's logical to assume that a new covenant means all the "old laws" or what are usually called the "ceremonial laws" are done away but the "moral laws" remain because of the writing on the heart.
I try not to knock people for thinking that. I really believe it is not their fault, but that of their teachers and of traditional forms of Christianity. But here is why I believe this is not good enough to prove that if we look at the whole of scripture according to the sum of the Word (Psalm 119:160). Within the torah are a few things that when compared with the revelation of the NT, legitimately disprove that impression. Please keep an open mind.
Firstly, we want to define what torah is. Torah is Genesis-Revelation. All of it is Yahweh's Word (and therefore abides forever; Isaiah 40:8; Psalm 119:89; 1 Peter 1:23-25).
The torah we are focusing on mainly is the Torah of Moshe (Moses), which is the first 5 books of our bibles, or the Pentateuch.
Secondly, it must be established that not every single commandment in torah applies to every single person, as most of us [should] know.
Thirdly, I want to make it clear that the torah is not a document from Sinai that must be kept to the letter perfectly by every single individual or otherwise, you need to just "believe" in Messiah.
A lot of people ask as an argument, "well, do you keep the law perfectly?" And if your answer is "no", they resume to say that you shouldn't even try to keep it then, and you should just accept Yahweh's grace and stop doing "your own works".
What I want to say is that "keep it perfectly or don't keep it at all" is never stated by Yahweh anywhere in the bible. Instead, what he says is:
Leviticus 18:5
Ye shall therefore keep my statutes, and my judgments: which if a man do, he shall live in them: I am יהוה.
And what this means is, is that if you claim to live by torah, you'll live your life in full devotion to torah. Many might then recall or bring this verse:
Deuteronomy 27:26
Cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them. And all the people shall say, Amen.
But this does not mean you must keep every letter of the torah throughout your lifetime perfectly or be cursed. This is talking about as a lifestyle. Turning aside from the way of torah as a whole (as goes for James 2:10 also). This is not talking about an incidental breaking of a single commandment, which we can repent from.
If this is the case, none of you should be sinners if you claim to be a believer. Why? John says in 1 John 3:6 and 1 John 5:18 that whoever is in Messiah and born of Yahweh “sins notâ€Â. Every single last one of us that has a brain and isn't an extremely arrogant and ignorant fool would say that we are not perfect, and that sometimes we stumble in our walk; even John here. But what John is really talking about here is sinning as a lifestyle.
Yet the same argument pops up: "you must keep the law perfectly or be damned and forced to accept christ as the 'fulfillment' of the law and forget all the 'ceremonial regulations' and just go with the 'morals' of the law".
This, in essence, is what I hear all the time. The problem is, however, this is not in scripture! I’ve heard this so much, I’ve come up with my own title for it: the "You Fail Doctrineâ€Â. Torah was not given to say "you are a failure so give up on keeping me and just accept grace". If this is the case, Yahweh had no right all those centuries for kicking Israel's butt up and down the earth for breaking it (as a lifestyle) if he knew it was impossible to keep it (as a lifestyle). Sadly, this is exactly what many people are suggesting that we should believe (although maybe not intentionally, and this is rebuked in Deuteronomy 30:14).
So let’s take a look at Hebrews.
Hebrews 7:11
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Hebrews 7:12
For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
But what specifically, in context, was changed/shifted? The whole torah? Many use this passage to say this, but that is not in the context (there is also no definite article “the†in the Greek, so it reads “change of lawâ€Â, not specifically the law). The continual topic is the priesthood and how Messiah has taken over the priestly office in exchange for Aaron and the Levites. Hebrews 7:12 has not switched the context to the whole torah, but only in context of how Messiah is scripturally our priest without actually violating torah.
I have my own opinion as to what the “change of law†is in context, but I want to mention first that there are two other good explanations of what this “change of law†is that I know of. The preceding verses talk about tithing in Hebrews 7:2-10. The “change of law†could possibly and logically be tithing (which was given according to torah to the Levites). So the priesthood, being shifted, requires a “change of law†concerning the tithes.
The second explanation is that it is speaking of the sacrificial system of atonement. The priesthood changed from the hands of sinful, earthly men to Yahshua in heaven, and so therefore, the sacrifices and system of atonement has been shifted to him also in his one-time sacrifice and his intercession for us before the Father in the heavenly Tabernacle. This is also logical in context.
I believe it is referring to the act of shifting/changing the priesthood within two tribes. It was told to Aaron (who was a Levite) and the tribe of the Levites given to him that the priesthood was theirs to perform. But how do we change it to Messiah after the order of Melech-Tzadik who came out of Yahudah (Judah)? This is the “change of law†that occurs based on the continual flow of the very next verses:
Hebrews 7:13
For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
Hebrews 7:14
For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
Hebrews 7:15
And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
It becomes perfectly clear what the “change of law†(not all torot/laws or specifically the torah) is. He's making an apologetic as to how Messiah Yahshua can be Cohen HaGadol (High Priest) although he is not a descendant of Levi or one of the sons of Aaron. He goes on to explain that Yahshua is not appointed as priest after a “pertaining to the flesh†(carnal) commandment/precept (Hebrews 7:16 - since the sons of Aaron and the Levites were flesh and passed the priesthood down through the flesh), but is made High Priest because of the power of an endless life. What is this endless life?
In context, it is that of Melech-Tzadik. Because he is not mentioned in a genealogy, and it is never recorded when he was born or when he died, this is a hint that this priesthood remains forever (Hebrews 7:3). This is Yahshua’s eternal priesthood (Psalm 110:4), because like Melech-Tzadik, he lives forever.
Hebrews 7:18 says there is a disannulling, or a setting aside of the former precept that made Aaron and his sons and the Levites priests because of this.
Continuing:
Hebrews 7:19
For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto יהוה.
Torah alone (in context, the priestly ministry of the sons of Levi) cannot put a new heart in you by making atonement for you by the blood of animals, like Yahshua could by his blood and the outpouring of the Spirit. Paul testifies in Hebrews 10:1 that the torah (concerning specifically the Yom Kippur sacrifices) cannot make anyone perfect (that is, change their heart by the means of that atonement). He states in Hebrews 10:3-4 that in those sacrifices was merely a reminder of sins for the people (Israel) because they could not take away sin (meaning, the sinning tendencies of the inner person, not that it didn't atone for sins).
And this is what he states here in Hebrews 7:19. We looked for a better hope (a new covenant that changed our consciences and renewed our spirits through Messiah).
Does this just randomly change Yahweh's torot? Or is their justification for this in torah? The weakness/unprofitableness of the Levitical priesthood (because of their nature - Hebrews 7:18; Hebrews 7:28) is what caused the need for this change/shifting of the priesthood from Levi to Yahudah and from men to the immortal Mashiach.
Leviticus 21:16-23 and Leviticus 22:2-9 list a number of ineligibilities for those ordained in the priestly office, the main one being “blemishesâ€Â.
The author of Hebrews clearly gave reference to these "blemishes" as part of their disqualification and a need for something new (Yahshua's Priesthood, although, in torah, it is actually before the Levitical priesthood – Genesis 14:18).
Continuing from the previous Hebrews 7 references:
Hebrews 7:20
And inasmuch as not without an oath he was made priest:
Hebrews 7:21
For those priests were made without an oath; but this with an oath by him that said unto him, “יהוה sware and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedecâ€Â
Because of this declaration with an oath, an oath Yahweh said he would not turn from, Yahshua's priesthood continues forever. The Levites, however, were ordained first without an oath (Exodus 32:29) when they had joined Yahweh's side after they killed all the idolatrous children that were foolishly worshipping the golden calf. Aaron and his sons were ordained, but they had terms and conditions. They still had no oath to swear them in continually and unchangeably. They had blemishes (though, according to scripture still, they will be restored – Isaiah 66:21; Jeremiah 33:18-22; Malachi 3:3; Ezekiel 40:46 and many more) But Messiah Yahshua was “without spot†and “without blemish†and “without sin†(1 Peter 1:19; Hebrews 4:15).
This is why the priesthood was shifted to Yahshua according to the new covenant. No other laws are mentioned to be "shifted" or "changed". If we are honest, only the ones concerning the priesthood were, and it is perfectly acceptable according to torah and the sum of Yahweh’s Word. This is how the torah was a shadow. Not every aspect of every commandment (otherwise "love YHWH with all your heart..." would be changed too), but the things concerning the priesthood. Other commandments in the torah, like keeping the Sabbath, the moadim/appointed times, are shadows of things to come, not shadows of Yahshua, as many people mistakenly think Colossians 2:16-17 is saying (another study).
The new covenant is actually based upon torah (Hebrews 8:6). In the KJV, and perhaps most translations, it says “establishedâ€Â. However, the word for “established†is nenomotetetai. This is how the Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance defines the word:
This is actually the same word used in Hebrews 7:11, where it says under the Levitical priesthood, the people “received the law†(the word for these three words being nenomotetetai). The new covenant is sanctioned by the torah. Do away with the torah and you have no new covenant. :-D
So what about the idea that if the priesthood has been changed, then that means everything else has been changed in this manner? Isn't the torah supposed to be a collective that if one thing is changed, then the whole thing falls apart?
No, not at all. In fact, I can give you an example within the torah where Yahweh did change/shifted something, and yet it never effected the rest of what Yahweh commanded. In Exodus 13:1-2, Yahweh makes it clear that he wants all the firstborn of the children of Israel, humankind and animal, to be given to him for service (not sacrifice for humans).
Yet later, first mentioned in Numbers 3:41, Yahweh reveals that he wanted the Levites and their cattle “instead of†all the firstborn of the children of Israel and their cattle.
So it is clear Yahweh can change one aspect of torah to accommodate something better without changing all the rest, yet keep within the boundaries of his own torah. Therefore comments and arguments such as "well, you don't make sacrifices or go to the priest, and so you are breaking the law; quit trying to keep it because you will fail and just accept grace" (more or less) are irrelevant. Not to mention that the temple was destroyed once before 70 C.E. This never voided any commandments concerning the priesthood. It was also rebuilt (and as is proven above, it will be restored again in some fashion or another).
Also, we see Yahweh make changes (or rather, additions) as torah progresses. He built a temple through Solomon (after denying David's request to undertake the task, if you'll remember) instead of abiding in the tabernacle. This never did away with or changed the method of keeping any other torot/laws.
Another argument is always brought up: "why don’t you stone people?" To briefly address this I will ask you to see Exodus 21:22 (divinely appointed judges deal out restitution), Leviticus 20:2 (people of the land stone with stones), Numbers 25:5 (judges charged to execute death penalty), Deuteronomy 1:16 (judges charged to judge righteously between the people of the nation), Deuteronomy 16:18 (judges and officers set up to judge the people), and Deuteronomy 19:17-18 (judges and priests given the job of hearing witnesses and dealing out judgment). So it is clear that only under this system (which is not active today, and hasn't been for some time) would this be allowed.
Obeying to the letter, void of outward mistakes, is not the issue with Yahweh. What is the issue is doing his Word, and doing it with the right type of heart. Are you willing? That is the issue. So the argument that not being perfect at all times voids the purpose and establishment of torah as our duty is a vain one. It is established as a way of life and not a means of perfection. Our only perfection comes from the righteousness of Yahweh, who is the Messiah Yahshua.
Peace and Love in Messiah
This is a popular passage that is brought up whenever the observance of the torah is in discussion. Many people look at the torah as some lengthy document that is all held together in a chain of letters, and if is not completed to each and every letter by any singular man or woman, then it collapses.
Something like, "well if you keep the sabbath, why don't you make sacrifices? it's all in the law isn't it? why don't you take a lamb to the priest to atone for your sin? why don't you stone people? because if you disobey one you disobey all of it, right?" is an argument I personally encounter all of the time.
Now, it's logical to assume that if the order of Aaron and the Levites that were given to them (Numbers 3:5-9) have been set aside in favor of Yahshua and his priesthood, which is after the order of Melech-Tzadik (“Melchisedecâ€Â, who was actually priest long before Aaron and the Levites were), that this affects the manner in which we keep all the rest of torah. It's logical to assume that a new covenant means all the "old laws" or what are usually called the "ceremonial laws" are done away but the "moral laws" remain because of the writing on the heart.
I try not to knock people for thinking that. I really believe it is not their fault, but that of their teachers and of traditional forms of Christianity. But here is why I believe this is not good enough to prove that if we look at the whole of scripture according to the sum of the Word (Psalm 119:160). Within the torah are a few things that when compared with the revelation of the NT, legitimately disprove that impression. Please keep an open mind.
Firstly, we want to define what torah is. Torah is Genesis-Revelation. All of it is Yahweh's Word (and therefore abides forever; Isaiah 40:8; Psalm 119:89; 1 Peter 1:23-25).
The torah we are focusing on mainly is the Torah of Moshe (Moses), which is the first 5 books of our bibles, or the Pentateuch.
Secondly, it must be established that not every single commandment in torah applies to every single person, as most of us [should] know.
Thirdly, I want to make it clear that the torah is not a document from Sinai that must be kept to the letter perfectly by every single individual or otherwise, you need to just "believe" in Messiah.
A lot of people ask as an argument, "well, do you keep the law perfectly?" And if your answer is "no", they resume to say that you shouldn't even try to keep it then, and you should just accept Yahweh's grace and stop doing "your own works".
What I want to say is that "keep it perfectly or don't keep it at all" is never stated by Yahweh anywhere in the bible. Instead, what he says is:
Leviticus 18:5
Ye shall therefore keep my statutes, and my judgments: which if a man do, he shall live in them: I am יהוה.
And what this means is, is that if you claim to live by torah, you'll live your life in full devotion to torah. Many might then recall or bring this verse:
Deuteronomy 27:26
Cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them. And all the people shall say, Amen.
But this does not mean you must keep every letter of the torah throughout your lifetime perfectly or be cursed. This is talking about as a lifestyle. Turning aside from the way of torah as a whole (as goes for James 2:10 also). This is not talking about an incidental breaking of a single commandment, which we can repent from.
If this is the case, none of you should be sinners if you claim to be a believer. Why? John says in 1 John 3:6 and 1 John 5:18 that whoever is in Messiah and born of Yahweh “sins notâ€Â. Every single last one of us that has a brain and isn't an extremely arrogant and ignorant fool would say that we are not perfect, and that sometimes we stumble in our walk; even John here. But what John is really talking about here is sinning as a lifestyle.
Yet the same argument pops up: "you must keep the law perfectly or be damned and forced to accept christ as the 'fulfillment' of the law and forget all the 'ceremonial regulations' and just go with the 'morals' of the law".
This, in essence, is what I hear all the time. The problem is, however, this is not in scripture! I’ve heard this so much, I’ve come up with my own title for it: the "You Fail Doctrineâ€Â. Torah was not given to say "you are a failure so give up on keeping me and just accept grace". If this is the case, Yahweh had no right all those centuries for kicking Israel's butt up and down the earth for breaking it (as a lifestyle) if he knew it was impossible to keep it (as a lifestyle). Sadly, this is exactly what many people are suggesting that we should believe (although maybe not intentionally, and this is rebuked in Deuteronomy 30:14).
So let’s take a look at Hebrews.
Hebrews 7:11
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Hebrews 7:12
For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
But what specifically, in context, was changed/shifted? The whole torah? Many use this passage to say this, but that is not in the context (there is also no definite article “the†in the Greek, so it reads “change of lawâ€Â, not specifically the law). The continual topic is the priesthood and how Messiah has taken over the priestly office in exchange for Aaron and the Levites. Hebrews 7:12 has not switched the context to the whole torah, but only in context of how Messiah is scripturally our priest without actually violating torah.
I have my own opinion as to what the “change of law†is in context, but I want to mention first that there are two other good explanations of what this “change of law†is that I know of. The preceding verses talk about tithing in Hebrews 7:2-10. The “change of law†could possibly and logically be tithing (which was given according to torah to the Levites). So the priesthood, being shifted, requires a “change of law†concerning the tithes.
The second explanation is that it is speaking of the sacrificial system of atonement. The priesthood changed from the hands of sinful, earthly men to Yahshua in heaven, and so therefore, the sacrifices and system of atonement has been shifted to him also in his one-time sacrifice and his intercession for us before the Father in the heavenly Tabernacle. This is also logical in context.
I believe it is referring to the act of shifting/changing the priesthood within two tribes. It was told to Aaron (who was a Levite) and the tribe of the Levites given to him that the priesthood was theirs to perform. But how do we change it to Messiah after the order of Melech-Tzadik who came out of Yahudah (Judah)? This is the “change of law†that occurs based on the continual flow of the very next verses:
Hebrews 7:13
For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
Hebrews 7:14
For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
Hebrews 7:15
And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
It becomes perfectly clear what the “change of law†(not all torot/laws or specifically the torah) is. He's making an apologetic as to how Messiah Yahshua can be Cohen HaGadol (High Priest) although he is not a descendant of Levi or one of the sons of Aaron. He goes on to explain that Yahshua is not appointed as priest after a “pertaining to the flesh†(carnal) commandment/precept (Hebrews 7:16 - since the sons of Aaron and the Levites were flesh and passed the priesthood down through the flesh), but is made High Priest because of the power of an endless life. What is this endless life?
In context, it is that of Melech-Tzadik. Because he is not mentioned in a genealogy, and it is never recorded when he was born or when he died, this is a hint that this priesthood remains forever (Hebrews 7:3). This is Yahshua’s eternal priesthood (Psalm 110:4), because like Melech-Tzadik, he lives forever.
Hebrews 7:18 says there is a disannulling, or a setting aside of the former precept that made Aaron and his sons and the Levites priests because of this.
Continuing:
Hebrews 7:19
For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto יהוה.
Torah alone (in context, the priestly ministry of the sons of Levi) cannot put a new heart in you by making atonement for you by the blood of animals, like Yahshua could by his blood and the outpouring of the Spirit. Paul testifies in Hebrews 10:1 that the torah (concerning specifically the Yom Kippur sacrifices) cannot make anyone perfect (that is, change their heart by the means of that atonement). He states in Hebrews 10:3-4 that in those sacrifices was merely a reminder of sins for the people (Israel) because they could not take away sin (meaning, the sinning tendencies of the inner person, not that it didn't atone for sins).
And this is what he states here in Hebrews 7:19. We looked for a better hope (a new covenant that changed our consciences and renewed our spirits through Messiah).
Does this just randomly change Yahweh's torot? Or is their justification for this in torah? The weakness/unprofitableness of the Levitical priesthood (because of their nature - Hebrews 7:18; Hebrews 7:28) is what caused the need for this change/shifting of the priesthood from Levi to Yahudah and from men to the immortal Mashiach.
Leviticus 21:16-23 and Leviticus 22:2-9 list a number of ineligibilities for those ordained in the priestly office, the main one being “blemishesâ€Â.
The author of Hebrews clearly gave reference to these "blemishes" as part of their disqualification and a need for something new (Yahshua's Priesthood, although, in torah, it is actually before the Levitical priesthood – Genesis 14:18).
Continuing from the previous Hebrews 7 references:
Hebrews 7:20
And inasmuch as not without an oath he was made priest:
Hebrews 7:21
For those priests were made without an oath; but this with an oath by him that said unto him, “יהוה sware and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedecâ€Â
Because of this declaration with an oath, an oath Yahweh said he would not turn from, Yahshua's priesthood continues forever. The Levites, however, were ordained first without an oath (Exodus 32:29) when they had joined Yahweh's side after they killed all the idolatrous children that were foolishly worshipping the golden calf. Aaron and his sons were ordained, but they had terms and conditions. They still had no oath to swear them in continually and unchangeably. They had blemishes (though, according to scripture still, they will be restored – Isaiah 66:21; Jeremiah 33:18-22; Malachi 3:3; Ezekiel 40:46 and many more) But Messiah Yahshua was “without spot†and “without blemish†and “without sin†(1 Peter 1:19; Hebrews 4:15).
This is why the priesthood was shifted to Yahshua according to the new covenant. No other laws are mentioned to be "shifted" or "changed". If we are honest, only the ones concerning the priesthood were, and it is perfectly acceptable according to torah and the sum of Yahweh’s Word. This is how the torah was a shadow. Not every aspect of every commandment (otherwise "love YHWH with all your heart..." would be changed too), but the things concerning the priesthood. Other commandments in the torah, like keeping the Sabbath, the moadim/appointed times, are shadows of things to come, not shadows of Yahshua, as many people mistakenly think Colossians 2:16-17 is saying (another study).
The new covenant is actually based upon torah (Hebrews 8:6). In the KJV, and perhaps most translations, it says “establishedâ€Â. However, the word for “established†is nenomotetetai. This is how the Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance defines the word:
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance said:
This is actually the same word used in Hebrews 7:11, where it says under the Levitical priesthood, the people “received the law†(the word for these three words being nenomotetetai). The new covenant is sanctioned by the torah. Do away with the torah and you have no new covenant. :-D
So what about the idea that if the priesthood has been changed, then that means everything else has been changed in this manner? Isn't the torah supposed to be a collective that if one thing is changed, then the whole thing falls apart?
No, not at all. In fact, I can give you an example within the torah where Yahweh did change/shifted something, and yet it never effected the rest of what Yahweh commanded. In Exodus 13:1-2, Yahweh makes it clear that he wants all the firstborn of the children of Israel, humankind and animal, to be given to him for service (not sacrifice for humans).
Yet later, first mentioned in Numbers 3:41, Yahweh reveals that he wanted the Levites and their cattle “instead of†all the firstborn of the children of Israel and their cattle.
So it is clear Yahweh can change one aspect of torah to accommodate something better without changing all the rest, yet keep within the boundaries of his own torah. Therefore comments and arguments such as "well, you don't make sacrifices or go to the priest, and so you are breaking the law; quit trying to keep it because you will fail and just accept grace" (more or less) are irrelevant. Not to mention that the temple was destroyed once before 70 C.E. This never voided any commandments concerning the priesthood. It was also rebuilt (and as is proven above, it will be restored again in some fashion or another).
Also, we see Yahweh make changes (or rather, additions) as torah progresses. He built a temple through Solomon (after denying David's request to undertake the task, if you'll remember) instead of abiding in the tabernacle. This never did away with or changed the method of keeping any other torot/laws.
Another argument is always brought up: "why don’t you stone people?" To briefly address this I will ask you to see Exodus 21:22 (divinely appointed judges deal out restitution), Leviticus 20:2 (people of the land stone with stones), Numbers 25:5 (judges charged to execute death penalty), Deuteronomy 1:16 (judges charged to judge righteously between the people of the nation), Deuteronomy 16:18 (judges and officers set up to judge the people), and Deuteronomy 19:17-18 (judges and priests given the job of hearing witnesses and dealing out judgment). So it is clear that only under this system (which is not active today, and hasn't been for some time) would this be allowed.
Obeying to the letter, void of outward mistakes, is not the issue with Yahweh. What is the issue is doing his Word, and doing it with the right type of heart. Are you willing? That is the issue. So the argument that not being perfect at all times voids the purpose and establishment of torah as our duty is a vain one. It is established as a way of life and not a means of perfection. Our only perfection comes from the righteousness of Yahweh, who is the Messiah Yahshua.
Peace and Love in Messiah