Eddie42
Member
It is too common in discussing Scripture, that different understandings of a verse or passage end up in a debate to prove oneself right, rather than to use the opposing view as a reason to study deeper. We all hate to be wrong, it is human nature, but if we truly seek the truth of God, we do injustice to ourselves not to consider the opposing view and look at one's one interpretation and explain both sides of a seemingly or apparent contradiction. I have found several obvious, violations of common sense we make. I'll mention one for consideration.
Paul in Gal. 3:16 makes a profound statement based on one single word, "seed" instead of "seeds". It is often said "Words have meaning!" and in the Scripture we must pay attention to this. An example is when dealing with the Watchtower organization which knocks on your door and tries to teach that the Son of God is a created being. They will use the revered KJV and point out that in Col. 1:15 it reads "firstborn of every creature" so he is a creature thay say... then they go to Rev. 3:14 "the beginning of creation", to bolster their deceit. When using the KJV, it pays to use the 1828 Webster's since it is close to the time period, the 1769 revision of the KJV. In the Webster's it is "first-born" and with our Bible software it is so easy to see the definition of first-born that fits the context of Col.1:15 and likewise about "beginning" in Rev. 3:14. (If not in your Bible software, use 'onelook.com' for the 1828 Webster's.)
FIRST'-BORN, a.
1. First brought forth; first in the order of nativity; eldest; as the first-born son.
2. Most excellent; most distinguished or exalted. Christ is called the first-born of every creature. Col 1.
BEGIN'NING, n. The first cause; origin.
I am the beginning and the ending. Rev 1.
The Watchtower is notorious for deceitful, improper definition by ignoring the biblical context. They then assemble fraudulent 'proof texts', each of which is taken out of context, to support their lies.
Among professed Christians a similar problem can be solved by using a dictionary. It helps with this verse: "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only." (Jas 2:24, KJV) While in most NT cases "justification" is God declaring one just, there is another use of the word. The 1828 Webster's defines thus:
JUST'IFY, v.t. [L. justus, just,and facio, to make.]
1. To prove or show to be just, or conformable to law, right, justice, propriety or duty; to defend or maintain; to vindicate as right.
By going into the context we find the preceding definition fits: "Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works." (Jas 2:18, KJV) "Justified" is used in this manner in Rom. 3:4. Then, the example given about Abraham proves this understanding. It reads: "But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead? Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?" (Jas 2:20-21, KJV)
This proves the point because Abraham was declared righteous by faith in chapter 15, "And he [Abram] believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness." (Gen 15:6, KJV) Then the offering of Isaac as a sacrifice came later in chapter 22, after he was then called "Abraham". His offering of Isaac showed, proved he was righteous or justified.
On occasion there can be a difference in the Hebrew or Greek that our English is based upon, or where competent Bible scholars differ on the proper meaning and definition of a word where there is no manuscript difference. These do not effect cardinal doctrines, but are very risky to be dogmatic about in other matters. Maybe this is where things like in Romans 14 come into play.
Paul in Gal. 3:16 makes a profound statement based on one single word, "seed" instead of "seeds". It is often said "Words have meaning!" and in the Scripture we must pay attention to this. An example is when dealing with the Watchtower organization which knocks on your door and tries to teach that the Son of God is a created being. They will use the revered KJV and point out that in Col. 1:15 it reads "firstborn of every creature" so he is a creature thay say... then they go to Rev. 3:14 "the beginning of creation", to bolster their deceit. When using the KJV, it pays to use the 1828 Webster's since it is close to the time period, the 1769 revision of the KJV. In the Webster's it is "first-born" and with our Bible software it is so easy to see the definition of first-born that fits the context of Col.1:15 and likewise about "beginning" in Rev. 3:14. (If not in your Bible software, use 'onelook.com' for the 1828 Webster's.)
FIRST'-BORN, a.
1. First brought forth; first in the order of nativity; eldest; as the first-born son.
2. Most excellent; most distinguished or exalted. Christ is called the first-born of every creature. Col 1.
BEGIN'NING, n. The first cause; origin.
I am the beginning and the ending. Rev 1.
The Watchtower is notorious for deceitful, improper definition by ignoring the biblical context. They then assemble fraudulent 'proof texts', each of which is taken out of context, to support their lies.
Among professed Christians a similar problem can be solved by using a dictionary. It helps with this verse: "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only." (Jas 2:24, KJV) While in most NT cases "justification" is God declaring one just, there is another use of the word. The 1828 Webster's defines thus:
JUST'IFY, v.t. [L. justus, just,and facio, to make.]
1. To prove or show to be just, or conformable to law, right, justice, propriety or duty; to defend or maintain; to vindicate as right.
By going into the context we find the preceding definition fits: "Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works." (Jas 2:18, KJV) "Justified" is used in this manner in Rom. 3:4. Then, the example given about Abraham proves this understanding. It reads: "But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead? Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?" (Jas 2:20-21, KJV)
This proves the point because Abraham was declared righteous by faith in chapter 15, "And he [Abram] believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness." (Gen 15:6, KJV) Then the offering of Isaac as a sacrifice came later in chapter 22, after he was then called "Abraham". His offering of Isaac showed, proved he was righteous or justified.
On occasion there can be a difference in the Hebrew or Greek that our English is based upon, or where competent Bible scholars differ on the proper meaning and definition of a word where there is no manuscript difference. These do not effect cardinal doctrines, but are very risky to be dogmatic about in other matters. Maybe this is where things like in Romans 14 come into play.