A tough question! (Biblical Scholars only)

[Soma-Sight]

In the defence of the Protestant paradigm, I found this statement dealiong with why the Apocrypha books were rejected from the "revised" canon".

Why the KJV Translators Did Not Accept the Apocrypha as Scripture

Another favorite lie of the critics is that the original KJV of 1611 included the Apocrypha, which no true Christian today accepts as Scripture. The Apocrypha is a collection of several pagan writings which the Catholic church accepts as inspired Scripture. In fact, the Council of Trent (1546) pronounced a CURSE upon anyone who denied that these books were inspired. The King James translators did NOT consider the books to be inspired Scripture, nor did they include them in the canon as such. They merely placed the Apocryphal books BETWEEN the Old and New testament as a historical document, not as Scripture. Their reasons for not accepting the Apocrypha as Scripture are listed on page 185-186 of the book Translators Revived, by Alexander McClure. The seven reasons are basically as follows:

Not one of them is in the Hebrew language like the rest of the Old Testament books.
Not one of the writers lays any claim to inspiration.
These books were never acknowledged as sacred Scriptures by the Jewish church, and therefore were never sanctioned by our Lord.
They were not allowed a place among the sacred books, during the first four centuries of the Christian church.
They contain fabulous statements, and statements which contradict not only the canonical Scriptures, but themselves. For example, in the Books of Maccabees alone, Antiochus Epiphanes dies three times in three places!
It inculcates doctrines at variance with the Bible, such as prayers for the dead and sinless perfection.
It teaches immoral practices, such as lying, suicide, assassination and magical incantation.


We have some pretty viable reasons why these books should be rejected!

But here is the problem!

IF GODS WORD IS INFALLIBLE AND INERRANT, WHY DID HE ALLOW THESE UNINSPIRED BOOKS TO COMINGLE WITH HIS "INSPIRED" BOOKS PREVIOUS TO THE CURRENT ACCEPTED WORD?

 

[bbas 64]

Good Day, Soma

You assume that Christains can not seperate the inspired from the usefull.

Our analysis has shown that the vast weight of historical evidence falls on the side of excluding the Apocrypha from the category of canonical Scripture. It is interesting to note that the only two Fathers of the early Church who are considered to be true biblical scholars, Jerome and Origen (and who both spent time in the area of Palestine and were therefore familiar with the Hebrew canon), rejected the Apocrypha. And the near unanimous opinion of the Church followed this view. And coupled with this historical evidence is the fact that these writings have serious internal difficulties in that they are characterized by heresies, inconsistencies and historical inaccuracies which invalidate their being given the status of Scripture. New Catholic Encyclopedia, vol. I (Washington D.C.: Catholic University, 1967), p. 390.

Peace to u,

Bill

 

[PDoug]

In the defence of the Protestant paradigm, I found this statement dealiong with why the Apocrypha books were rejected from the "revised" canon".

Why the KJV Translators Did Not Accept the Apocrypha as Scripture

Another favorite lie of the critics is that the original KJV of 1611 included the Apocrypha, which no true Christian today accepts as Scripture. The Apocrypha is a collection of several pagan writings which the Catholic church accepts as inspired Scripture. In fact, the Council of Trent (1546) pronounced a CURSE upon anyone who denied that these books were inspired. The King James translators did NOT consider the books to be inspired Scripture, nor did they include them in the canon as such. They merely placed the Apocryphal books BETWEEN the Old and New testament as a historical document, not as Scripture. Their reasons for not accepting the Apocrypha as Scripture are listed on page 185-186 of the book Translators Revived, by Alexander McClure. The seven reasons are basically as follows:

Not one of them is in the Hebrew language like the rest of the Old Testament books.
Not one of the writers lays any claim to inspiration.
These books were never acknowledged as sacred Scriptures by the Jewish church, and therefore were never sanctioned by our Lord.
They were not allowed a place among the sacred books, during the first four centuries of the Christian church.
They contain fabulous statements, and statements which contradict not only the canonical Scriptures, but themselves. For example, in the Books of Maccabees alone, Antiochus Epiphanes dies three times in three places!
It inculcates doctrines at variance with the Bible, such as prayers for the dead and sinless perfection.
It teaches immoral practices, such as lying, suicide, assassination and magical incantation.


We have some pretty viable reasons why these books should be rejected!

But here is the problem!

IF GODS WORD IS INFALLIBLE AND INERRANT, WHY DID HE ALLOW THESE UNINSPIRED BOOKS TO COMINGLE WITH HIS "INSPIRED" BOOKS PREVIOUS TO THE CURRENT ACCEPTED WORD?

John 10

31 Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him,
32 but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?"
33 "We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."
34 Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods ?
35 If he called them 'gods,' to whom the word of God came--and the Scripture cannot be broken--
36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'?
37 Do not believe me unless I do what my Father does.
38 But if I do it, even though you do not believe me, believe the miracles, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father."

Most people belonging to the Church think that they are different from the Jews - but they are not. Just like how the Jews were not able to recognize Christ as being from God, many Christians do not recognize scriptures that come from God as well. Why? Because they do not have faith the way God prescribed. E.g. if the Jews had believed in Christ performing miracles, they would have believed in the practice of saying what you want and believing it will happen, or asking God for things, and believing you will receive them - which are the two ways someone can have faith per Christ in Mark 11:22-24, and was the way Christ performed miracles Himself. This would have caused the Jews to recognize Christ as being who He said He was.

The Council of Trent which selected the books that make up the canon, did not have faith the way prescribed by God, and therefore was not able to distinguish many writings inspired by God, from writings not inspired by God. (See also 1 Corinthians 2:6-16.) Scriptures such as the Book of Enoch, the Gospel of Thomas, 1 and 2 Esdras, the Gospel of Bartholomew, the Epistle of Barnabas, and many others, are definitely inspired works. However a person needs real faith to be able to make that determination.

Many works found among the Gnostics collection are corruptions of sacred, hidden information supplied by Christ. Why did God allow the truth to be commingled with false doctrines? It is part of a test. Those who have real faith have the Holy Spirit instructing them as to what is sound scripture, vs. what is not sound scripture. But those who do not, are allowed to stray into corruption, exacerbating their situation. This is also seen with the Jews and the law:

Romans 9

30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith;
31 but Israel, who pursued a law of righteousness, has not attained it. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the "stumbling stone."
33 As it is written:
"See, I lay in Zion a stone that causes men to stumble
and a rock that makes them fall,
and the one who trusts in him will never be put to shame."

Because the Jews refused to have faith (Mark 11:22-24), the law was made to condemn them more than everyone else. How? Because the Jews know the kind of behavior required by God (stated in the law), but they do not perform it - which is only possible by having faith. Similarly, many who do not have real faith are condemned not only by authentic scriptures from God they see and review regularly, but also from true and false hidden works they pursue - seeking out the secret ways of God.

This is why only a remnant of mankind will be saved - about 0.01% (2 Esdras, 4 Ezra. 7:68(138)). The world is full of false ways and trails to God (which are rife within the Church), and unless a person has faith correctly - he will succumb to them and be condemned forever.

 

[tzalam2]

IF GODS WORD IS INFALLIBLE AND INERRANT, WHY DID HE ALLOW THESE UNINSPIRED BOOKS TO COMINGLE WITH HIS "INSPIRED" BOOKS PREVIOUS TO THE CURRENT ACCEPTED WORD?[/color]

that's like asking why does God allow man to sin.
Men and women are responsible for their own sins.
The comingled books are a product of sinful, unrepentant man,
twisting the pure, unadulterated Word of God, to fit his
stiff-necked rebelliousness.

God didn't prevent men from establishing wicked forms of worship,
God didn't prevent men and women from having a choice.

God does give the truth, the light, and the way. It's up to people to choose whom they will serve and follow.

 

[tzalam2]

Good Day, Soma

You assume that Christains can not seperate the inspired from the usefull.

. And the near unanimous opinion of the Church followed this view. New Catholic Encyclopedia, vol. I (Washington D.C.: Catholic University, 1967), p. 390.


Bill

By your use of the words "the Church", are you referring to the Roman Catholic Church?
If so, then, that's not the true church of the Living God, nor a part of the body of Christ.

 

[Soma-Sight]

that's like asking why does God allow man to sin.
Men and women are responsible for their own sins.
The comingled books are a product of sinful, unrepentant man,
twisting the pure, unadulterated Word of God, to fit his
stiff-necked rebelliousness.

So man has changed the scripture.