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Gary
Guest
Apocrypha and Roman Catholic doctrine
Don't try and twist the facts. It is very clear what the Roman Catholic "church" pronounced an anathema (excommunication) on any who rejected them. By definition, therefore, the individuals in the early church who vehemently opposed the Apocrypha are excommunicated. I wonder if they know that? It includes Athanasius, Cyril of Jerusalem, Origen and the translator of the Latin Vulgate, Jerome!!
Even the early Syrian church did not accept the Apocrypha. In the second century A.D. the Syrian Bible (Peshitta) did not contain the Apocrypha.
Roman Catholic scholars throughout the Reformation period made the distinction between the Apocrypha and the canon. Cardinal Ximenes made this distinction in his Complutensian Polyglot (a.d. 1514–17) on the very eve of the Reformation. Cardinal Cajetan, who later opposed Luther at Augsburg in 1518, published a Commentary on All the Authentic Historical Books of the Old Testament (a.d. 1532) many years after the Reformation began which did not contain the Apocrypha!!! (Source: Geisler, N. L., & MacKenzie, R. E. (1995). Roman Catholics and Evangelicals : Agreements and differences. Page 164.)
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vic said:How have these books influenced your Doctrines?
Gary said:Substantially. The Council of Trent affords these books full canonical status and pronounces an anathema (excommunication) on any who reject them. The Council stated: “If anyone, however, should not accept the said books as sacred and canonical, entire with all their parts . . . and if both knowingly and deliberately he should condemn the aforesaid tradition let him be anathema.â€Â
So I guess all born-again, Bible-believing Christians and all other non-Roman Catholics are anathema according to the Roman Catholics!
Doctrinally, the Apocrypha supports prayers for the dead (which also entails a belief in purgatory). For instance, 2 Maccabees 12:46 reads: “Thus he made atonement for the dead that they might be freed from this sin.â€Â
By the way, the Greek church has not always accepted the Apocrypha, nor is its present position unequivocal. At the synods of Constantinople (a.d. 1638), Jaffa (1642), and Jerusalem (1672) these books were declared canonical. But even as late as 1839 their Larger Catechism expressly omitted the Apocrypha on the grounds that its books did not exist in the Hebrew Bible. This is still their position.
Source for some of this:
Geisler, N. L., & MacKenzie, R. E. (1995). Roman Catholics and Evangelicals : Agreements and differences (Page 164).
stray bullet said:The Council of Trent didn't give them canonical status- they had the status since the early centuries. That's why the Orthodox (11th Century) and Coptics (5th Century) use them. It wasn't until the 16th Century that protestant removed them from the bible... perhaps because of the prayers for the dead?
Don't try and twist the facts by saying when they were 'declared'... something is 'declared' when it becomes a controversy... which is did after the reformation.
Don't try and twist the facts. It is very clear what the Roman Catholic "church" pronounced an anathema (excommunication) on any who rejected them. By definition, therefore, the individuals in the early church who vehemently opposed the Apocrypha are excommunicated. I wonder if they know that? It includes Athanasius, Cyril of Jerusalem, Origen and the translator of the Latin Vulgate, Jerome!!
Even the early Syrian church did not accept the Apocrypha. In the second century A.D. the Syrian Bible (Peshitta) did not contain the Apocrypha.
- IF (as you try to claim) the Apocryha WAS accepted then, why were these people not excommunicated LONG before the Reformation?
Norman Geisler said:At the Roman Catholic Council of Trent (a.d. 1546) the infallible proclamation was made accepting the Apocrypha as part of the inspired Word of God. Unfortunately, the proclamation came a millennium and a half after the books were written and in an obvious polemic against Protestantism. Furthermore, the official infallible addition of books that support prayers for the dead is highly suspect, coming as it did only a few years after Luther protested against this very doctrine. It has all the appearance of an attempt to provide ecclesiastical support for Roman Catholic doctrines that lack biblical support.
Roman Catholic scholars throughout the Reformation period made the distinction between the Apocrypha and the canon. Cardinal Ximenes made this distinction in his Complutensian Polyglot (a.d. 1514–17) on the very eve of the Reformation. Cardinal Cajetan, who later opposed Luther at Augsburg in 1518, published a Commentary on All the Authentic Historical Books of the Old Testament (a.d. 1532) many years after the Reformation began which did not contain the Apocrypha!!! (Source: Geisler, N. L., & MacKenzie, R. E. (1995). Roman Catholics and Evangelicals : Agreements and differences. Page 164.)
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