Wavy,
To say human beings will partake in the divine nature and that Christ is the fullness of God in bodily form are two very different statements. One passage has human beings being offered a share in the divine nature of God, the other declares that God dwells fully in the flesh in the person of Christ Jesus.
I take it you reject the Gospel of John?
"In the Beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God and the Word was God"?
In regards to your answer, I must simply say you are reading too much into the text. The same word for 'divine nature' in 2Pet.1.4 is the same word used in Col.2.9. We share in the divine nature given by God, and Christ possesses it fully. Col.2.10 also says we are 'complete' (full, related to the word 'fullness' in v.9) in Christ, thereby we are in a sense divine sons, full of the divine nature (cf. Eph.3.19).
In regards to Jn.1.1, it is not a matter of 'rejection', but a matter of understanding. The second use of theos in Jn.1.1 is a predicate adjective, placed in the emphatic position preceding the logos. It literally reads, 'and God was the word', which describes the divine nature of what is being expressed in regards to the God (the first use of theos is used with the definite article).