F
follower of Christ
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WHAT A JOKE !francisdesales said:No, Paul does NOT separate what God joins...!!!
Since this chap is UNable to READ and see the facts this is for you readers to whom I am now turning my attention to.
READERS SEE->Click->>> "Let not man Put Asunder" vs "let the unbeliever depart"
Christ said LET NOT in response to FRIVOLOUS putting away.Christ said let no man put asunder, yet YOU would have an exception IMMEDIATELY AFTER Christ says this. You have entirely diminished the Words of Christ.
He can give EXCEPTION because He NEVER SAID 'CANNOT' as you fallaciously believe !
READERS SEE->Click->>> "Let not man Put Asunder" vs "let the unbeliever depart"
And yet...What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
READERS SEE->Click->>> "Let not man Put Asunder" vs "let the unbeliever depart"
ahhhh...here we go.God does not join the heathen "marriages".
So when two UNBELIEVERS marry YOU claim they ARENT actually married.
Sorry but that makes NO sense given Pauls instruction to the Corinthians who came to Christ and were told NOT to divorce their UNbelieving spouse.
*IF what you claim WERE true then they wouldnt BE married when they became christians as God didnt 'join' their heathen marriage.
Or are you going to need to push some ridiculous error that EVERY Corinthian believer AFTER coming to salvation purposefully married an UNbeliever and that is what Paul is addressing? Preposterous !
No friend, they BECAME believers and many times had a spouse who didnt. Their marriage WAS marriage PRIOR to becoming saved and REMAINED a marriage afterward.
Your views, quite frankly, are ridiculous.
God recognizes ANY and ALL lawful marriages, Im afraid.Only those of His People, either the Jews or the Christians. Either the people of the Old or New Covenant. The community does not bind those who are not of the community.
IF He didnt then if two UNbelievers became saved theyd IMMEDIATLY be living in fornication....preposterous nonsense !
Utter nonsense.I remind you of the terms of the Pauline privelege...
It applies to the non-Christian, one not bound by the Law, either established by Moses OR Christ. Thus, Paul provides a pastoral exception, since Christ was addressing the People of God, not all people throughout the world.
God does not join a "marriage" outside of the Church.
God recognizes ALL marriages that are between a man and a woman who are permitted to marry regardless of their religious background.
Otherwise EVERY couple who becomes believers would IMMEDIATELY be living in fornication.
All I see you doing now, poster, is trying to cover your tracks for your fallacious points made in your previous post.
Ridiculous nonsense.Try to remember, in Christ's "time", there WERE no Gentile marriages allowed by the Law then in force. It was against the Law to marry a non-believer. Thus, Jesus would not address the "Pauline privelege". Only later, when Christians married Gentile non-believers did Paul find it necessary to address the issue.
Regards
I demand you show PROOF from something OTHER than your fallible ECFs for this assertion.
Paul was addressing Corinthians who WERE formerly married and ONE had become a believer. he FULLY acknowledged their marriages AS marriages and *IF* the tripe you believe WERE true he would have had to inform them that their marriages WERENT recognized by God.
You are really digging yourself into a whole here.